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NCLEX - National Council Licensure Examination - Dump Information

Vendor : Medical
Exam Code : NCLEX
Exam Name : National Council Licensure Examination
Questions and Answers : 368 Q & A
Updated On : October 20, 2017
PDF Download Mirror : NCLEX Brain Dump
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NCLEX Questions and Answers

QUESTION: 354

The middle layer of the urinary bladder is identified as .

  1. Mucous coat
  2. Submucous coat
  3. Muscular Coat
  4. Sphincter Coat

Answer: B


QUESTION: 355

The micturition reflex center is located in the .

  1. Pons
  2. Midbrain
  3. Lumbar plexus
  4. Sacral plexus

Answer: D


QUESTION: 356

Which of the following match with the definition: a poor output of urine?

  1. Oliguria
  2. Pyruia
  3. Enuresis
  4. Diuresis

Answer: A


QUESTION: 357

Capillary loops located in the medulla are also known as .

  1. Vasa recta
  2. Urea collectors
  3. Trigone

Answer: A


QUESTION: 358

The primary function of the descending loop of Henle in the kidney is?

  1. Reabsorption of sodium ions
  2. Reabsoption of water by osmosis
  3. Secretion of hydrogen ions
  4. Secretion of potassium ions

Answer: B


QUESTION: 359

Which of the following is not considered a part of the male urethra?

  1. Prostatic
  2. Membranous
  3. Vasapore
  4. Penile

Answer: C


QUESTION: 360

When glucose if found in urine it is called .

  1. Glucosuria
  2. Uremia
  3. Ureteritis
  4. Glucose intolerance Answer: A QUESTION: 361

  1. Calcium phosphate
  2. Uric Acid
  3. Calcium oxalate
  4. HCO3

Answer: D


QUESTION: 362

The one of the functions occurring at the distal convoluted tubule in the kidney is?

  1. Passive secretion of hydrogen ions
  2. Passive secretion of potassium ions
  3. Limited re-absorption of water
  4. No re-absorption of sodium

Answer: B


QUESTION: 363

ADH has which of the following effects on the distal convoluted tubule?

  1. Decrease water re-absorption
  2. Increase water re-absorption
  3. Decrease the concentration of urine
  4. Increase the urine volume

Answer: B


QUESTION: 364

Which of the following is not associated with the role of the kidneys?

  1. Release of erythropoietin (hormone)
  2. Release of renin (enzyme)
  3. Release of Vitamin E
  4. Activate Vitamin D

Answer: C


QUESTION: 365

Each kidney contains approximately nephrons.

  1. 10 million
  2. 1 million
C. 100,000
D. 10,000

Answer: B


QUESTION: 366

The release of Angiotension II causes which of the following to occur?

  1. Increased filtration rate
  2. Decreased glomerular hydrostatic pressure
  3. Increase synthesis of Vitamin E
  4. Increased release of erythropoietin

Answer: A


QUESTION: 367

Which of the following is an effect of a diuretic?

  1. Decreased Cardiac Output
  2. Increased fluid volume
  3. Increased sodium re-absorption
  4. Increased chloride ion re-absorption

Answer: A


QUESTION: 368

Which of the following is not considered a loop diuretic?

  1. Bumetadine (BUMEX)
  2. Furosemide (LASIX)
  3. Chlorthiazide (DIURIL)
  4. Ethacrynic Acid (EDECRIN)

Answer: C


Medical NCLEX Exam (National Council Licensure Examination ) Detailed Information

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Medical-Surgical NCLEX Practice QUIZ

Chapter 39 - NCLEX Review Questions (GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM)
...

When assessing a patient's abdomen, what would be most appropriate for the nurse to do?A. Palpate the abdomen before auscultation.B. Percuss the abdomen before auscultation.C. Auscultate the abdomen before palpation.D. Perform deep palpation before light palpation.
- Auscultate the abdomen before palpation.>During examination of the abdomen, auscultation is done before percussion and palpation because these latter procedures may alter the bowel sounds.

When preparing a patient for a capsule endoscopy study NCLEX, what should the nurse do?A. Ensure the patient understands the required bowel preparation.B. Have the patient return to the procedure room for removal of the capsule.C. Teach the patient to maintain a clear liquid diet throughout the procedure.D. Explain to the patient that conscious sedation will be used during placement of the capsule.
- Ensure the patient understands the required bowel preparation.>A capsule endoscopy study NCLEX involves the patient performing a bowel prep to cleanse the bowel before swallowing the capsule.>The patient will be on a clear liquid diet for 1 to 2 days before the procedure and will remain NPO for 4 to 6 hours after swallowing the capsule.>The capsule is disposable and will pass naturally with the bowel movement, although the monitoring device will need to be removed.

Inspection of an older patient's mouth reveals the presence of white, curd-like lesions on the patient's tongue. What is the most likely etiology for this abnormal assessment finding?A. HerpesvirusB. Candida albicansC. Vitamin deficiencyD. Irritation from ill-fitting dentures
- Candida albicans>White, curd-like lesions surrounded by erythematous mucosa are associated with oral candidiasis. Herpesvirus causes benign vesicular lesions in the mouth. Vitamin deficiencies may cause a reddened, ulcerated, swollen tongue. Irritation from ill-fitting dentures will cause friable, edematous, painful, bleeding gingivae.

The nurse should recognize that the liver performs which functions (select all that apply)?A. Bile storageB. DetoxificationC. Protein metabolismD. Steroid metabolismE. Red blood cell (RBC) destruction
- Detoxification- Protein metabolism- Steroid metabolism>The liver performs multiple major functions that aid in the maintenance of homeostasis. These include metabolism of proteins and steroids as well as detoxification of drugs and metabolic waste products. The Kupffer cells of the liver participate in the breakdown of old RBCs. The liver produces bile, but storage occurs in the gall bladder.

The health care team is assessing a male patient for acute pancreatitis after he presented to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. Which laboratory value is the best diagnostic indicator of acute pancreatitis?A. Gastric pHB. Blood glucoseC. Serum amylaseD. Serum potassium
- Serum amylase>Elevated serum amylase levels indicate early pancreatic dysfunction and are used to diagnose acute pancreatitis. Serum lipase levels stay elevated longer than serum amylase in acute pancreatitis. Blood glucose, gastric pH, and potassium levels are not direct indicators of acute pancreatic dysfunction.

The nurse is performing a focused abdominal assessment of a patient who has been recently admitted. In order to palpate the patient's liver, where should the nurse palpate the patient's abdomen?A. Left lower quadrantB. Left upper quadrantC. Right lower quadrantD. Right upper quadrant
- Right upper quadrant>Although the left lobe of the liver is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, the bulk of the liver is located in the right upper quadrant.

The patient had a car accident and was "scared to death." The patient is now reporting constipation. What affecting the gastrointestinal (GI) tract does the nurse know could be contributing to the constipation?A. The patient is too nervous to eat or drink, so there is no stool.B. The sympathetic nervous system was activated, so the GI tract was slowed. CorrectC. The parasympathetic nervous system is now functioning to slow the GI tract.D. The circulation in the GI system has been increased, so less waste is removed.
->The constipation is most likely related to the sympathetic nervous system activation from the stress related to the accident. SNS activation can decrease peristalsis. Even without oral intake for a short time, stool will be formed.>The parasympathetic system stimulates peristalsis.>The circulation to the GI system is decreased with stress

A 90-year-old healthy man is suffering from dysphagia. The nurse explains what age-related change of the GI tract is the most likely cause of his difficulty?A. XerostomiaB. Esophageal cancerC. Decreased taste budsD. Thinner abdominal wall
- Xerostomia>Xerostomia, decreased volume of saliva, leads to dry oral mucosa and dysphagia.>Esophageal cancer is not an age-related change.>Decreased taste buds and a thinner abdominal wall do not contribute to difficulty swallowing.

A patient had a stomach resection for stomach cancer. The nurse should teach the patient about the loss of the hormone that stimulates gastric acid secretion and motility and maintains lower esophageal sphincter tone. Which hormone will be decreased with a gastric resection?A. GastrinB. SecretinC. CholecystokininD. Gastric inhibitory peptide
- Gastrin>Gastrin is the hormone activated in the stomach (and duodenal mucosa) by stomach distention that stimulates gastric acid secretion and motility and maintains lower esophageal sphincter tone. >Secretin inhibits gastric motility and acid secretion and stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate secretion.>Cholecystokinin allows increased flow of bile into the duodenum and release of pancreatic digestive enzymes.>Gastric inhibitory peptide inhibits gastric acid secretion and motility.

The patient tells the nurse she had a history of abdominal pain, so she had a surgery to make an opening into the common bile duct to remove stones. The nurse knows that this surgery is called aA. colectomyB. cholecystectomyC. choledocholithotomyD. choledochojejunostomy
- choledocholithotomy>A choledocholithotomy is an opening into the common bile duct for the removal of stones.>A colectomy is the removal of the colon. >The cholecystectomy is the removal of the gallbladder.>The choledochojejunostomy is an opening between the common bile duct and the jejunum.

The ED nurse has inspected, auscultated, and palpated the abdomen with no obvious abnormalities, except pain. When the nurse palpates the abdomen for rebound tenderness, there is severe pain. The nurse should know that this could indicate what problem?A. Hepatic cirrhosisB. HypersplenomegalyC. Gall bladder distentionD. Peritoneal inflammation
- Peritoneal inflammation>When palpating for rebound tenderness, the problem area of the abdomen will produce pain and severe muscle spasm when there is peritoneal inflammation. >Hepatic cirrhosis, hypersplenomegaly, and gall bladder distention do not manifest with rebound tenderness.

A patient who is scheduled for surgery with general anesthesia in 1 hour is observed with a moist, but empty water glass in his hand. Which assessment finding may indicate that the patient drank a glass of water?A. Flat abdomen without movement upon inspectionB. Tenderness at left upper quadrant upon palpationC. Easily heard, loud gurgling in the right upper quadrantD. High-pitched, hollow sounds in the left upper quadrant
- Easily heard, loud gurgling in the right upper quadrant>If the patient drank water on an empty stomach, gurgling can be assessed without a stethoscope or assessed with auscultation.>High-pitched, hollow sounds are tympanic and indicate an empty cavity.>A flat abdomen and tenderness do not indicate that the patient drank a glass of water.

When caring for the patient with heart failure, the nurse knows that which gastrointestinal process is most dependent on cardiac output and may affect the patient's nutritional status?A. IngestionB. DigestionC. AbsorptionD. Elimination
- Absorption>Substances that interface with the absorptive surfaces of the GI tract (primarily in the small intestine) diffuse across the intestinal membranes into intestinal capillaries and are then carried to other parts of the body for use in energy production.>The cardiac output provides the blood flow for this absorption of nutrients to occur.

Chapter 39 - Pre-Test (GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM)
...

An 85-year-old woman seen in the primary care provider's office for a well check complains of difficulty swallowing. What common effect of aging should the nurse assess for as a possible cause?A. AnosmiaB. XerostomiaC. HypochlorhydriaD. Salivary gland tumor
- Xerostomia>Xerostomia (decreased saliva production), or dry mouth, affects many older adults and may be associated with difficulty swallowing (dysphagia). >Anosmia is loss of sense of smell. >Hypochlorhydria, a decrease in stomach acid, does not affect swallowing. Salivary gland tumors are not common.

The nurse is reviewing the home medication list for a 44-year-old man admitted with suspected hepatic failure. Which medication could cause hepatotoxicity?A. NitroglycerinB. Digoxin (Lanoxin)C. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)D. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
- Acetaminophen (Tylenol)>Many chemicals and drugs are potentially hepatotoxic (see Table 39-6) and result in significant patient harm unless monitored closely. For example, chronic high doses of acetaminophen and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may be hepatotoxic.

The nurse is assessing a 50-year-old woman admitted with a possible bowel obstruction. Which assessment finding would be expected in this patient?A. Tympany to abdominal percussionB. Aortic pulsation visible in epigastric regionC. High-pitched sounds on abdominal auscultationD. Liver border palpable 1 cm below the right costal margin
- High-pitched sounds on abdominal auscultation>The bowel sounds are more high pitched (rushes and tinkling) when the intestines are under tension, as in intestinal obstruction.>Bowel sounds may also be diminished or absent with an intestinal obstruction.>Normal findings include aortic pulsations on inspection and tympany with percussion, and the liver may be palpable 1 to 2 cm along the right costal margin.

A 62-year-old woman patient is scheduled for a percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography to restore biliary drainage. The nurse discusses the patient's health history and is most concerned if the patient makes which statement?A. "I am allergic to bee stings."B. "My tongue swells when I eat shrimp."C. "I have had epigastric pain for 2 months."D. "I have a pacemaker because my heart rate was slow."
- "My tongue swells when I eat shrimp.">The percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography procedure will include the use of radiopaque contrast medium. Patients allergic to shellfish and iodine are also allergic to contrast medium. Having a pacemaker will not affect the patient during this procedure. It would be expected that the patient would have some epigastric pain given the patient's condition.

A 35-year-old man with a family history of adenomatous polyposis had a colonoscopy with removal of multiple polyps. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse teach the patient to report immediately?A. Fever and abdominal painB. Flatulence and liquid stoolC. Loudly audible bowel soundsD. Sleepiness and abdominal cramps
- Fever and abdominal pain>The patient should be taught to observe for signs of rectal bleeding and peritonitis.>Fever, malaise, and abdominal pain and distention could indicate a perforated bowel with peritonitis.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results for a 71-year-old patient with metastatic lung cancer. The patient was admitted with a diagnosis of malnutrition. The serum albumin level is 4.0 gdL, and prealbumin is 10 mgdL. What should this indicate to the nurse?A. The albumin level is normal, and therefore the patient does not have protein malnutrition.B. The albumin level is increased, which is a common finding in patients with cancer who have malnutrition.C. Both the serum albumin and prealbumin levels are reduced, consistent with the admitting diagnosis of malnutrition.D. Although the serum albumin level is normal, the prealbumin level more accurately reflects the patient's nutritional status.
- Although the serum albumin level is normal, the prealbumin level more accurately reflects the patient's nutritional status.>Prealbumin has a half-life of 2 days and is a better indicator of recent or current nutritional status.>Serum albumin has a half-life of approximately 20 to 22 days. The serum level may lag behind actual protein changes by more than 2 weeks and is therefore not a good indicator of acute changes in nutritional status.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the hospital for asthma who weighs 186 lb (84.5 kg). During dietary counseling, the patient asks the nurse how much protein he should ingest each day. How many grams of protein does the nurse recommend should be included in the diet based on the patient's current weight?A. 24B. 41C. 68D. 93
- 68>The daily intake of protein should be between 0.8 and 1 gkg of body weight. Thus this patient should take in between 68 and 84 g of protein per day in the diet.

The nurse is providing care for a 23-year-old woman who is a strict vegetarian. To prevent the consequences of iron deficiency, what should the nurse recommend?A. Brown rice and kidney beansB. Cauliflower and egg substitutesC. Soybeans and hot breakfast cerealD. Whole-grain bread NCLEX and citrus fruits
- Soybeans and hot breakfast cereal>Vegetarians are at a particular risk for iron deficiency, a problem that can be prevented by regularly consuming high-iron foods such as hot cereals and soybeans.>The other foods listed are not classified as high sources of iron.

A patient who has dysphagia as a consequence of a stroke is receiving enteral feedings through a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG). What intervention should the nurse integrate into this patient's care?A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of normal saline every 4 hours.B. Flush the tube before and after feedings if the patient's feedings are intermittent.C. Flush the PEG with 100 mL of sterile water before and after medication administration.D. To prevent fluid overload, avoid flushing when the patient is receiving continuous feeding.
- Flush the tube before and after feedings if the patient's feedings are intermittent.>The nurse should flush feeding tubes with 30 mL of water (not normal saline) every 4 hours and before and after medication administration during continuous feeding or before and after intermittent feeding.>Flushes of 100 mL are excessive and may cause fluid overload in the patient.

A patient received a small-bore nasogastric (NG) tube after a laryngectomy. What should be the nurse's priority intervention before starting the enteral feeding?A. AspirationB. Auscultation of airC. Set head of bed at 40 degrees.D. Verify NG tube placement on x-ray.
- Verify NG tube placement on x-ray.>It is imperative to ensure that an NG tube is situated in the GI tract rather than the patient's lungs.>When an NG tube has been recently inserted, it is important to confirm this placement with an x-ray that will identify the tube's radiopaque tip.>Aspiration and air auscultation may not differentiate between gastric and respiratory placement of the tube.>The head of bed elevated at least 30 degrees is to prevent aspiration.>To determine the maintenance of the feeding tube's proper position, the exit site of the tube is marked at the time of the x-ray and the external portion measured to allow for assessment of a change position with a change in the length of the tube.

The nurse recognizes that the majority of patients' caloric needs should come from which source?A. FatsB. ProteinsC. PolysaccharidesD. Monosaccharides
- Polysaccharides>Carbohydrates should constitute between 45% and 65% of caloric needs, compared with 20% to 35% from fats and 10% to 35% from proteins.>Polysaccharides are the complex carbohydrates that are contained in bread NCLEXs and grains.>Monosaccharides are simple sugars.

A patient who has suffered severe burns in a motor vehicle accident will soon be started on parenteral nutrition (PN). Which principle should guide the nurse's administration of the patient's nutrition?A. Administration of PN requires clean technique.B. Central PN requires rapid dilution in a large volume of blood. CorrectC. Peripheral PN delivery is preferred over the use of a central line.D. Only water-soluble medications may be added to the PN by the nurse.
->Central PN is hypertonic and requires rapid dilution in a large volume of blood. Because PN is an excellent medium for microbial growth, aseptic technique is necessary during administration.>Administration through a central line is preferred over the use of peripheral PN, and the nurse may not add any medications to PN.

Which assessment should the nurse prioritize in the care of a patient who has recently begun receiving parenteral nutrition (PN)?A. Skin integrity and bowel soundsB. Electrolyte levels and daily weightsC. Auscultation of the chest and tests of blood coagulabilityD. Peripheral vascular assessment and level of consciousness (LOC)
- Electrolyte levels and daily weights>The use of PN necessitates frequent and thorough assessments.>Key focuses of these assessments include daily weights and close monitoring of electrolyte levels.>Assessments of bowel sounds, integument, peripheral vascular system, LOC, chest sounds, and blood coagulation may be variously performed, but close monitoring of fluid and electrolyte balance supersedes these in importance.

The stable patient has a gastrostomy tube for enteral feeding. Which care could the RN delegate to the LPN (select all that apply)?A. Administer bolus or continuous feedings. CorrectB. Evaluate the nutritional status of the patient.C. Administer medications through the gastrostomy tube.D. Monitor for complications related to the tube and enteral feeding.E. Teach the caregiver about feeding via the gastrostomy tube at home.
- Administer medications through the gastrostomy tube.>For the stable patient, the LPN can administer bolus or continuous feedings and administer medications through the gastrostomy.>The RN must evaluate the nutritional status of the patient, monitor for complications related to the tube and the enteral feeding, and teach the caregiver about feeding via the gastrostomy tube at home.

The patient cannot afford to buy the food she needs for her family, so she makes sure her children eat first, and then she eats. When she comes to the clinic, she reports bleeding gums, loose teeth, and dry, itchy skin. The nurse should know that this patient is most likely lacking which vitamin?A. Folic acidB. Vitamin CC. Vitamin DD. Vitamin K
- Vitamin C>This patient is lacking Vitamin C as evidenced by the bleeding gums, loose teeth, and dry, itchy skin. >Clinical manifestations of folic acid deficiency include megaloblastic anemia, anorexia, fatigue, sore tongue, diarrhea, or forgetfulness. >Clinical manifestations of Vitamin D deficiency include muscular weakness, excess sweating, diarrhea, bone pain, rickets, or osteomalacia.>Clinical manifestations of Vitamin K deficiency include defective blood coagulation.

When the nurse identifies an individual at risk for malnutrition with nutritional screening, what is the next step for the nurse to take?A. Supply supplements between meals.B. Encourage eating meals with others.C. Have family bring in food from home.D. Complete a full nutritional assessment.
- Complete a full nutritional assessment.>A full nutritional assessment includes history and physical examination and laboratory data. >The nutritional assessment will need to be done to provide the basis for nutrition intervention.>The interventions may include supplements if ordered, family bringing food from home, and socializing with meals.

The patient has parenteral nutrition infusing with amino acids and dextrose. In report, the oncoming nurse is told that the tubing, the bag, and the dressing were changed 22 hours ago. What care should the nurse coming on be prepared to do (select all that apply)?A. Give the patient insulin.B. Check amount of feeding left in the bag. CorrectC. Check that the next bag has been ordered. CorrectD. Check the insertion site and change the tubing.E. Check the label to ensure ingredients and solution are as ordered.
- Check the label to ensure ingredients and solution are as ordered.>The nurse should check the amount of feeding left in the bag, and that the next bag has been ordered to be sure the solution will not run out before the next bag is available.>Parenteral nutrition solutions are only good for 24 hours and usually take some time for the pharmacy to mix for each patient. >The label on the bag should be checked to ensure that the ingredients and solution are what was ordered.>The patient would only receive insulin if the patient is experiencing hyperglycemia and was receiving sliding scale insulin or had diabetes mellitus.>The insertion site should be checked, but the tubing is only changed every 72 hours unless lipids are being used.

The patient being admitted has been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to see on admission assessment?A. Tan skin, blonde hair, and diarrheaB. Sensitivity to heat, fatigue, and polycythemiaC. Dysmenorrhea, gastric ulcer pain, and hungerD. Hair loss; dry, yellowish skin; and constipation
- Hair loss; dry, yellowish skin; and constipation>The patient with anorexia nervosa, along with abnormal weight loss, is likely to have hair loss; dry, yellow skin; constipation; sensitivity to cold, and absent or irregular menstruation.>Other signs of malnutrition are also noted during physical examination.

The nurse is teaching a female patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus about nutrition before discharge. She had surgery to revise a lower leg stump with a skin graft. What food should the nurse teach the patient to eat to best facilitate healing?A. Non-fat milkB. Chicken breastC. Fortified oatmealD. Olive oil and nuts
- Chicken breast>High quality protein such as chicken breast is important for tissue repair. Although the non-fat milk, nuts, and fortified oatmeal have some protein, they do not have as much as the chicken breast.

Chapter 40 - Pre-Test (NUTRITIONAL PROBLEMS)
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The nurse is evaluating the nutritional status of a 55-year-old man who is undergoing radiation treatment for oropharyngeal cancer. Which laboratory test would be the best indicator to determine if the patient has protein-calorie malnutrition?A. Serum transferrinB. C-reactive proteinC. Serum prealbuminD. Alanine transaminase (ALT)
- Serum prealbumin>In the absence of an inflammatory condition, the best indicator of protein-calorie malnutrition (PCM) is prealbumin; prealbumin is a protein synthesized by the liver and indicates recent or current nutritional status. Decreased albumin and transferrin levels are other indicators that protein is deficient. C-reactive protein (CRP) is elevated during inflammation and is used to determine if prealbumin, albumin, and transferrin are decreased related to protein deficiency or an inflammatory process. Other indicators of protein deficiency include elevated serum potassium levels, low red blood cell counts and hemoglobin levels, decreased total lymphocyte count, elevated liver enzyme levels (ALT), and decreased levels of both fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins.

A patient who is unable to swallow because of progressive amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is prescribed enteral nutrition through a newly placed gastrostomy tube. Which task is appropriate for the nurse to delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?A. Irrigate the tube between feedings.B. Provide wound care at the gastrostomy site.C. Administer prescribed liquid medications through the tube.D. Position the patient with a 45-degree head of bed elevation.
- Position the patient with a 45-degree head of bed elevation.>Rationale: Unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) may position the patient receiving enteral feedings with the head of bed elevated.>A licensed practical nurselicensed vocational nurse (LPNLVN) or an RN could perform the other activities.

An older patient was admitted with a fractured hip after being found on the floor of her home. She was extremely malnourished and started on parenteral nutrition (PN) 3 days ago. Which assessment finding would be of most concern to the nurse?A. Blood glucose level of 125 mgdLB. Serum phosphate level of 1.9 mgdLC. White blood cell count of 10,500µLD. Serum potassium level of 4.6 mEqL
- Serum phosphate level of 1.9 mgdL>Refeeding syndrome can occur if a malnourished patient is started on aggressive nutritional support. >Hypophosphatemia (serum phosphate level less than 2.4 mgdL) is the hallmark of refeeding syndrome and could result in cardiac dysrhythmias, respiratory arrest, and neurologic problems.>An increase in the blood glucose level is expected during the first few days after PN is started. The goal is to maintain a glucose range of 110 to 150 mgdL.>An elevated white blood cell count (greater than 11,000µL) could indicate an infection.>Normal serum potassium levels are between 3.5 and 5.0 mEqL.

A 22-year-old female is admitted with anorexia nervosa and a serum potassium level of 2.4 mEqL. What complication is most important for the nurse to observe for in this patient?A. Muscle weaknessB. Cardiac dysrhythmiasC. reased urine outputD. Anemia and leukopenia
- Cardiac dysrhythmias>A serum potassium level less than 2.5 mEqL indicates severe hypokalemia, which can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias (e.g., bradycardia, tachycardia, ventricular dysrhythmias). Other manifestations of potassium deficiency include muscle weakness and renal failure. Patients with anorexia nervosa commonly have iron-deficiency anemia and an elevated blood urea nitrogen level related to intravascular volume depletion and abnormal renal function.

A frail 74-year-old man with recent severe weight loss is instructed to eat a high-protein, high-calorie diet at home. If the man likes all of the items below, which would be the most appropriate for the nurse to suggest?A. Orange juice and dry toastB. Oatmeal, butter, and creamC. Steamed carrots and chicken brothD. Banana and unsweetened applesauce
- Oatmeal, butter, and cream>Oatmeal, butter, and cream are examples of food items that would be appropriate to include for a patient on a high-protein, high-calorie diet.

CHAPTER 41 - NCLEX (OBESITY)
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During the initial postoperative period following bariatric surgery, the nurse recognizes the importance of monitoring obese patients for respiratory insufficiency based on what knowledge?A. The body stores anesthetics in adipose tissue.B. Postoperative pain may cause a decreased respiratory rate.C. Intubation may be difficult because of extra chin skinfolds.D. The patient's head must remain flat for a minimum of 2 hours postprocedure.
- The body stores anesthetics in adipose tissue.>The body stores anesthetics in adipose tissue, placing patients with excess adipose tissue at risk for re-sedation.>As adipose cells release anesthetics back into the bloodstream, the patient may become sedated after surgery, increasing the risk of hypoventilation and resultant respiratory insufficiency.>Difficult intubation does not cause respiratory insufficiency.>Pain usually increases respiratory rate.>The patient's head should be elevated after bariatric surgery to decrease abdominal pressure and facilitate respirations.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is 5'6" tall and weighs 186 lb. The nurse has discussed reasonable weight loss goals and a low-calorie diet with the patient. Which statement made by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?A. "I will limit intake to 500 calories a day."B. "I will try to eat very slowly during mealtimes."C. "I'll try to pick foods from all of the basic food groups."D. "It's important for me to begin a regular exercise program."
- "I will limit intake to 500 calories a day.">Limiting intake to 500 calories per day is not indicated for this patient, and the severe calorie energy restriction would place this patient at risk for multiple nutrient deficiencies. >Decreasing caloric intake at least 500 to 1000 calories a day is recommended for weight loss of one to two pounds per week.>The other options show understanding of the teaching.

The nurse is caring for a 45-year-old woman with a herniated lumbar disc. The patient realizes that weight loss is necessary to lessen back strain. The patient is 5'6" tall and weighs 186 lb (84.5 kg) with a body mass index (BMI) of 28 kgm2. The nurse explains to the patient that this measurement places her in which of the following weight categories?A. Normal weightB. OverweightC. ObeseD. Severely obese
- Overweight>A normal BMI is 18.5 to 24.9 kgm2, whereas a BMI of 25 to 29.9 kgm2 is considered overweight. A BMI of 30.0-39.9 is considered obese, and a BMI of 40 or greater is severely obese.

In developing an effective weight reduction plan for an overweight patient who states a willingness to try to lose weight, it is most important for the nurse to first assess which factor?A. The length of time the patient has been obeseB. The patient's current level of physical activityC. The patient's social, emotional, and behavioral influences on obesityD. Anthropometric measurements, such as body mass index and skinfold thickness
- The patient's social, emotional, and behavioral influences on obesity>Eating patterns are established early in life, and eating has many meanings for people.>To establish a weight reduction plan that will be successful for the patient, the nurse should first explore the social, emotional, and behavioral influences on the patient's eating patterns.>The duration of obesity, current physical activity level, and current anthropometric measurements are not as important for the weight reduction plan.

In developing a weight reduction program with a 45-year-old female patient who weighs 197 lb, the nurse encourages the patient to set a weight loss goal of how many pounds in 4 weeks?A. 1-2B. 3-5C. 4-8D. 5-10
- 4-8>A realistic weight loss goal for patients is 1 to 2 lbwk, which prevents the patient from becoming frustrated at not meeting weight loss goals.

The nurse has completed initial instruction with a patient regarding a weight loss program. The nurse determines that the teaching has been effective when the patient makes which statement?A. "I plan to lose 4 lb a week until I have lost the 60-pound goal."B. "I will keep a diary of weekly weights to illustrate my weight loss."C. "I will restrict my carbohydrate intake to less than 30 gday to maximize weight loss."D. "I should not exercise more than my program requires since increased activity increases the appetite."
- "I will keep a diary of weekly weights to illustrate my weight loss.">The patient should monitor and record weight once per week.>This prevents frustration at the normal variations in daily weights and may help the patient to maintain motivation to stay on the prescribed diet.>Weight loss should occur at a rate of 1 to 2 lbweek.>The diet should be well balanced rather than lacking in specific components that may cause an initial weight loss but is not usually sustainable.>Exercise is a necessary component of any successful weight loss program.

A community health nurse is conducting an initial assessment of a new patient. Which assessments should the nurse include when screening the patient for metabolic syndrome (select all that apply)?A. Blood pressureB. Resting heart rateC. Physical enduranceD. Waist circumferenceE. Fasting blood glucose
- Blood pressure- Waist circumference- Fasting blood glucose>The diagnostic criteria for metabolic syndrome include elevated blood pressure, fasting blood glucose, waist circumference, triglycerides, and HDL cholesterol. >Resting heart rate and physical endurance are not part of the diagnostic criteria.

Which patient has the highest morbidity risk?A. Male 6 ft. 1 in. tall, BMI 29 kgm2B. Female 5 ft. 6 in. tall, weight 150 lb.C. Male with waist circumference 46 in.D. Female 5 ft. 10 in. tall, obesity Class III
- Female 5 ft. 10 in. tall, obesity Class III>The patient in Class III obesity has the highest risk for disease because Class III denotes severe obesity or a BMI greater than 40 kgm2.>The patient with waist circumference 46 in. has a high risk for disease, but without the BMI or obesity class, a more precise determination cannot be made.>The female who is 5 ft. 6 in. tall has a normal weight for her height. >The male patient who is over 6 ft. tall is overweight, which increases his risk of disease, but a more precise determination cannot be made without the waist circumference.

At the first visit to the clinic, the female patient with a BMI of 29 kgm2 tells the nurse that she does not want to become obese. Which question used for assessing weight issues is the most important question for the nurse to ask?A. "What factors contributed to your current body weight?"B. "How is your overall health affected by your body weight?"C. "What is your history of gaining weight and losing weight?"D. "In what ways are you interested in managing your weight differently?"
- "In what ways are you interested in managing your weight differently?">Asking the patient about her desire to manage her weight in a different manner helps the nurse determine the patient's read NCLEXiness for learning, degree of motivation, and willingness to change lifestyle habits.>The nurse can help the patient set realistic goals.>This question will also lead to discussing the patient's history of gaining and losing weight and factors that have contributed to the patient's current weight.>The patient may be unaware of the overall health effects of her body weight, so this question is not helpful at this time.

A 50-year-old African American woman has a BMI of 35 kgm2, type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypercholesterolemia, and irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). She is seeking assistance in losing weight, because, "I have trouble stopping eating when I should, but I do not want to have bariatric surgery." Which drug therapy should the nurse question if it is prescribed for this patient?A. Orlistat (Xenical)B. Locaserin (Belviq)C. Phentermine (Adipex-P)D. Phentermine and topiramate (Qsymia)
- Orlistat (Xenical)>Orlistat (Xenical), which blocks fat breakdown and absorption in the intestine, produces some unpleasant GI side effects.>This drug would not be appropriate for someone with IBS.>Locaserin (Belviq) suppresses the appetite and creates a sense of satiety that may be helpful for this patient.>Phentermine (Adipex-P) needs to be used for a limited period of time (3 months or less).>Qsymia is a combination of two drugs, phentermine and topiramate. >Phentermine is a sympathomimetic agent that suppresses appetite and topiramate induces a sense of satiety.

The severely obese patient has elected to have the Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RYGB) procedure. The nurse will know the patient understands the preoperative teaching when the patient makes which statement?A. "This surgery will preserve the function of my stomach."B. "This surgery will remove the fat cells from my abdomen."C. "This surgery can be modified whenever I need it to be changed."D. "This surgery decreases how much I can eat and how many calories I can absorb."
- "This surgery decreases how much I can eat and how many calories I can absorb.">The RYGB decreases the size of the stomach to a gastric pouch and attaches it directly to the small intestine so food bypasses 90% of the stomach, the duodenum, and a small segment of the jejunum.>The vertical sleeve gastrectomy removes 85% of the stomach, but preserves the function of the stomach.>Lipectomy and liposuction remove fat tissue from the abdomen or other areas.>Adjustable gastric banding can be modified or reversed at a later date.

CHAPTER 41 - PRE-TEST - (OBESITY)
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The nurse instructs an obese 22-year-old man with a sedentary job about the health benefits of an exercise program. The nurse evaluates that teaching is effective when the patient makes which statement?A. "The goal is to walk at least 10,000 steps every day of the week."B. "Weekend aerobics for 2 hours is better than exercising every day."C. "Aerobic exercise will increase my appetite and result in weight gain."D. "Exercise causes weight loss by decreasing my resting metabolic rate."
- "The goal is to walk at least 10,000 steps every day of the week.">A realistic activity goal is to walk 10,000 steps a day. reased activity does not promote an increase in appetite or lead to weight gain.>Exercise should be done daily, preferably 30 minutes to an hour a day. Exercise increases metabolic rate.

The nurse teaches a 50-year-old woman who has a body mass index (BMI) of 39 kgm2 about weight loss. Which dietary change would be appropriate for the nurse to recommend to this patient?A. Decrease fat intake and control portion sizeB. rease vegetables and decrease fluid intakeC. rease protein intake and avoid carbohydratesD. Decrease complex carbohydrates and limit fiber
- Decrease fat intake and control portion size>The safest dietary guideline for weight loss is to decrease caloric intake by maintaining a balance of nutrients and adequate hydration while controlling portion size and decreasing fat intake.

In the immediate postoperative period a nurse cares for a severely obese 72-year-old man who had surgery for repair of a lower leg fracture. Which assessment would be most important for the nurse to make?A. Cardiac rhythmB. Surgical dressingC. Postoperative painD. Oxygen saturation
- Oxygen saturation>After surgery an older andor severely obese patient should be closely monitored for oxygen desaturation.>The body stores anesthetics in adipose tissue, placing patients with excess adipose tissue (e.g., obesity, older) at risk for resedation. As adipose cells release anesthetic back into the bloodstream, the patient may become sedated after surgery.>This may depress the respiratory rate and result in a drop in oxygen saturation.

The nurse cares for a 34-year-old woman after bariatric surgery. The nurse determines that discharge teaching related to diet is successful if the patient makes which statement?A. "A high protein diet that is low in carbohydrates and fat will prevent diarrhea."B. "Food should be high in fiber to prevent constipation from the pain medication."C. "Three meals a day with no snacks between meals will provide optimal nutrition."D. "Fluid intake should be at least 2000 mL per day with meals to avoid dehydration."
- "A high protein diet that is low in carbohydrates and fat will prevent diarrhea.">The diet generally prescribed is high in protein and low in carbohydrates, fat, and roughage and consists of six small feedings daily.> Fluids should not be ingested with the meal, and in some cases, fluids should be restricted to less than 1000 mL per day.>Fluids and foods high in carbohydrate tend to promote diarrhea and symptoms of the dumping syndrome.>Generally, calorically dense foods (foods high in fat) should be avoided to permit more nutritionally sound food to be consumed.

Which patient is at highest risk for developing metabolic syndrome? A) A 62-year-old white man who has coronary artery disease with chronic stable anginaB) A 54-year-old Hispanic woman who is sedentary and has nephrogenic diabetes insipidusC. A 27-year-old Asian American woman who has preeclampsia and gestational diabetes mellitusD.) A 38-year-old Native American man who has diabetes mellitus and elevated hemoglobin A1C Correct
A 38-year-old Native American man who has diabetes mellitus and elevated hemoglobin A1C.- - - - African Americans, Hispanics, Native Americans, and Asians are at an increased risk for development of metabolic syndrome. Other risk factors include individuals who have diabetes that cannot maintain a normal glucose level, have hypertension, and secrete a large amount of insulin, or who have survived a heart attack and have hyperinsulinemia.

CHAPTER 42 - NCLEX (UPPER GASTROINTESTINAL PROBLEMS)
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Following administration of a dose of metoclopramide (Reglan) to the patient, the nurse determines that the medication has been effective when what is noted?
A. Decreased blood pressureB. Absence of muscle tremorsC. Relief of nausea and vomitingD. No further episodes of diarrhea
- Relief of nausea and vomiting> Metoclopramide is classified as a prokinetic and antiemetic medication. If it is effective, the patient's nausea and vomiting should resolve.+Metoclopramide does not affect blood pressure, muscle tremors, or diarrhea.
The patient receiving chemotherapy rings the call bell and reports the onset of nausea. The nurse should prepare an as-needed dose of which medication?
A. Morphine sulfateB. Zolpidem (Ambien)C. Ondansetron (Zofran)D. Dexamethasone (Decadron)
- Ondansetron (Zofran)> Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist antiemetic that is especially effective in reducing cancer chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.+Morphine sulfate may cause nausea and vomiting.+Zolpidem does not relieve nausea and vomiting. +Dexamethasone is usually used in combination with ondansetron for acute and chemotherapy-induced emesis.
The patient who is admitted with a diagnosis of diverticulitis and a history of irritable bowel disease and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has received a dose of Mylanta 30 mL PO. The nurse should evaluate its effectiveness by questioning the patient as to whether which symptom has been resolved?
A. DiarrheaB. HeartburnC. ConstipationD. Lower abdominal pain
- Heartburn+Mylanta is an antacid that contains both aluminum and magnesium. It is indicated for the relief of GI discomfort, such as heartburn associated with GERD.+Mylanta can cause both diarrhea and constipation as a side effect. Mylanta does not affect lower abdominal pain.
A patient complains of nausea. When administering a dose of metoclopramide (Reglan), the nurse should teach the patient to report which potential adverse effect?
A. TremorsB. ConstipationC. Double visionD. Numbness in fingers and toes
- Tremors+Extrapyramidal side effects, including tremors and tardive dyskinesias, may occur as a result of metoclopramide (Reglan) administration.+Constipation, double vision, and numbness in fingers and toes are not adverse effects of metoclopramide.
After administering a dose of promethazine (Phenergan) to a patient with nausea and vomiting, what common temporary adverse effect of the medication does the nurse explain may be experienced?
A. TinnitusB. DrowsinessC. Reduced hearingD. Sensation of falling
- Drowsiness+Although being given to this patient as an antiemetic, promethazine also has sedative and amnesic properties. For this reason, the patient is likely to experience drowsiness as an adverse effect of the medication.+Tinnitus, reduced hearing, and loss of balance are not side effects of promethazine.
The nurse is caring for a patient treated with IV fluid therapy for severe vomiting. As the patient recovers and begins to tolerate oral intake, which food choice does the nurse understand would be most appropriate?
A. Iced teaB. Dry toastC. Hot coffeeD. Plain hamburger
- Dry toast+Dry toast or crackers may alleviate the feeling of nausea and prevent further vomiting.+Water is the initial fluid of choice.+Extremely hot or cold liquids and fatty foods are generally not well tolerated.
The nurse determines that a patient has experienced the beneficial effects of therapy with famotidine (Pepcid) when which symptom is relieved?
A. NauseaB. BelchingC. Epigastric painD. Difficulty swallowing
- Epigastric pain+Famotidine is an H2-receptor antagonist that inhibits parietal cell output of HCl acid and minimizes damage to gastric mucosa related to hyperacidity, thus relieving epigastric pain.+Famotidine is not indicated for nausea, belching, and dysphagia.
A patient reports having a dry mouth and asks for something to drink. The nurse recognizes that this symptom can most likely be attributed to a common adverse effect of which medication that the patient is taking?
A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)B. Cefotetan (Cefotan)C. Famotidine (Pepcid)D. Promethazine (Phenergan)
- Promethazine (Phenergan)+A common adverse effect of promethazine, an antihistamineantiemetic agent, is dry mouth; another is blurred vision.+Common side effects of digoxin are yellow halos and bradycardia.+Common side effects of cefotetan are nausea, vomiting, stomach pain, and diarrhea.+Common side effects of famotidine are headache, abdominal pain, constipation, or diarrhea.
A patient with a history of peptic ulcer disease has presented to the emergency department reporting severe abdominal pain and has a rigid, boardlike abdomen that prompts the health care team to suspect a perforated ulcer. What intervention should the nurse anticipate?
A. Providing IV fluids and inserting a nasogastric (NG) tubeB. Administering oral bicarbonate and testing the patient's gastric pH levelC. Performing a fecal occult blood test and administering IV calcium gluconateD. Starting parenteral nutrition and placing the patient in a high-Fowler's position
- Providing IV fluids and inserting a nasogastric (NG) tube+A perforated peptic ulcer requires IV replacement of fluid losses and continued gastric aspiration by NG tube. Nothing is given by mouth, and gastric pH testing is not a priority. +Calcium gluconate is not a medication directly relevant to the patient's suspected diagnosis, and parenteral nutrition is not a priority in the short term.
The results of a patient's recent endoscopy indicate the presence of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which teaching point should the nurse provide to the patient based on this new diagnosis?
A. "You'll need to drink at least two to three glasses of milk daily."B. "It would likely be beneficial for you to eliminate drinking alcohol."C. "Many people find that a minced or pureed diet eases their symptoms of PUD."D. "Your medications should allow you to maintain your present diet while minimizing symptoms."
-"It would likely be beneficial for you to eliminate drinking alcohol."+ Alcohol increases the amount of stomach acid produced so it should be avoided. Although there is no specific recommended dietary modification for PUD, most patients find it necessary to make some sort of dietary modifications to minimize symptoms. Milk may exacerbate PUD.
A female patient has a sliding hiatal hernia. What nursing interventions will prevent the symptoms of heartburn and dyspepsia that she is experiencing?
A. Keep the patient NPO.B. Put the bed in the Trendelenberg position.C. Have the patient eat 4 to 6 smaller meals each day.D. Give various antacids to determine which one works for the patient.
- Have the patient eat 4 to 6 smaller meals each day.+Eating smaller meals during the day will decrease the gastric pressure and the symptoms of hiatal hernia.+Keeping the patient NPO or in a Trendelenberg position are not safe or realistic for a long period of time for any patient. +Varying antacids will only be done with the care provider's prescription, so this is not a nursing intervention.
A patient is seeking emergency care after choking on a piece of steak. The nursing assessment reveals a history of alcoholism, cigarette smoking, and hemoptysis. Which diagnostic study NCLEX is most likely to be performed on this patient?
A. Barium swallowB. Endoscopic biopsyC. Capsule endoscopyD. Endoscopic ultrasonography
- Endoscopic biopsy+Because of this patient's history of excessive alcohol intake, smoking, hemoptysis, and the current choking episode, cancer may be present.+A biopsy is necessary to make a definitive diagnosis of carcinoma, so an endoscope will be used to obtain a biopsy and observe other abnormalities as well. A barium swallow may show narrowing of the esophagus, but it is more diagnostic for achalasia.+An endoscopic ultrasonography may be used to stage esophageal cancer. Capsule endoscopy can show alterations in the esophagus but is more often used for small intestine problems.+A barium swallow, capsule endoscopy, and endoscopic ultrasonography cannot provide a definitive diagnosis for cancer when it is suspected.
A 72-year-old patient was admitted with epigastric pain due to a gastric ulcer. Which patient assessment warrants an urgent change in the nursing plan of care?
A. Chest pain relieved with eating or drinking waterB. Back pain 3 or 4 hours after eating a mealC. Burning epigastric pain 90 minutes after breakfastD. Rigid abdomen and vomiting following indigestion
- Rigid abdomen and vomiting following indigestion+A rigid abdomen with vomiting in a patient who has a gastric ulcer indicates a perforation of the ulcer, especially if the manifestations of perforation appear suddenly. +Midepigastric pain is relieved by eating, drinking water, or antacids with duodenal ulcers, not gastric ulcers.+Back pain 3-4 hours after a meal is more likely to occur with a duodenal ulcer.+Burning epigastric pain 1-2 hours after a meal is an expected manifestation of a gastric ulcer related to increased gastric secretions and does not cause an urgent change in the nursing plan of care.
The patient with chronic gastritis is being put on a combination of medications to eradicate H. pylori. Which drugs does the nurse know will probably be used for this patient?
A. Antibiotic(s), antacid, and corticosteroidB. Antibiotic(s), aspirin, and antiulcerprotectantC. Antibiotic(s), proton pump inhibitor, and bismuthD. Antibiotic(s) and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
- Antibiotic(s), proton pump inhibitor, and bismuth+To eradicate H. pylori, a combination of antibiotics, a proton pump inhibitor, and possibly bismuth (for quadruple therapy) will be used. Corticosteroids, aspirin, and NSAIDs are drugs that can cause gastritis and do not affect H. pylori.
The patient is having an esophagoenterostomy with anastomosis of a segment of the colon to replace the resected portion. What initial postoperative care should the nurse expect when this patient returns to the nursing unit?
A. Turn, deep breathe, cough, and use spirometer every 4 hours.B. Maintain an upright position for at least 2 hours after eating.C. NG will have bloody drainage, and it should not be repositioned.D. Keep in a supine position to prevent movement of the anastomosis.
- NG will have bloody drainage, and it should not be repositioned.+The patient will have bloody drainage from the NG tube for 8 to 12 hours, and it should not be repositioned or reinserted without contactingthe surgeon.+Turning and deep breathing will be done every 2 hours, and the spirometer will be used more often than every 4 hours.+Coughing would put too much pressure in the area and should not be done. Because the patient will have the NG tube, the patient will not be eating yet.+The patient should be kept in a semi-Fowler's or Fowler's position, not supine, to prevent reflux and aspiration of secretions.
The patient is having a gastroduodenostomy (Billroth I operation) for stomach cancer. What long-term complication is occurring when the patient reports generalized weakness, sweating, palpitations, and dizziness 15 to 30 minutes after eating?
A. MalnutritionB. Bile reflux gastritisC. Dumping syndromeD. Postprandial hypoglycemia
- Dumping syndrome+After a Billroth I operation, dumping syndrome may occur 15 to 30 minutes after eating because of the hypertonic fluid going to the intestine and additional fluid being drawn into the bowel.+Malnutrition may occur but does not cause these symptoms.+Bile reflux gastritis cannot happen when the stomach has been removed. +Postprandial hypoglycemia occurs with similar symptoms, but 2 hours after eating.
The nurse is teaching a group of high school students about the prevention of food poisoning. Which comment by the student shows understanding of foodborne illness protection?
A. "We like to mix up the ingredients so the flavors will melt before we cook our beef stew."B. "For a snack, I like to eat raw cookie dough from the package instead of baking the cookies."C. "We only have one cutting board, so we cut up our chicken and salad vegetables at the same time."D. "When they gave me a pink hamburger I sent it back and asked for a new bun and clean plate."
- "When they gave me a pink hamburger I sent it back and asked for a new bun and clean plate."+The student who did not accept the pink hamburger and asked for a new bun and clean plate understood that the pink meat may not have reached 160° and could be contaminated with bacteria.+Mixing ingredients and leaving them long enough for the flavors to melt, eating raw cookie dough from a refrigerated package, and only using one cutting board without washing it with hot soapy water between the chicken and salad vegetables could all lead to food poisoning from contamination.
The patient is having a gastroduodenostomy (Billroth I operation) for stomach cancer. What long-term complication is occurring when the patient reports generalized weakness, sweating, palpitations, and dizziness 15 to 30 minutes after eating?
A. MalnutritionB. Bile reflux gastritisC. Dumping syndromeD. Postprandial hypoglycemia
- Dumping syndrome+After a Billroth I operation, dumping syndrome may occur 15 to 30 minutes after eating because of the hypertonic fluid going to the intestine and additional fluid being drawn into the bowel.+Malnutrition may occur but does not cause these symptoms.+Bile reflux gastritis cannot happen when the stomach has been removed. Postprandial hypoglycemia occurs with similar symptoms, but 2 hours after eating.
The nurse is teaching a group of high school students about the prevention of food poisoning. Which comment by the student shows understanding of foodborne illness protection?
A. "We like to mix up the ingredients so the flavors will melt before we cook our beef stew."B. "For a snack, I like to eat raw cookie dough from the package instead of baking the cookies."C. "We only have one cutting board, so we cut up our chicken and salad vegetables at the same time."D. "When they gave me a pink hamburger I sent it back and asked for a new bun and clean plate."
- "When they gave me a pink hamburger I sent it back and asked for a new bun and clean plate."+The student who did not accept the pink hamburger and asked for a new bun and clean plate understood that the pink meat may not have reached 160° and could be contaminated with bacteria.+Mixing ingredients and leaving them long enough for the flavors to melt, eating raw cookie dough from a refrigerated package, and only using one cutting board without washing it with hot soapy water between the chicken and salad vegetables could all lead to food poisoning from contamination.

CHAPTER 42 - PRE-TEST (UPPER GASTROINTESTINAL PROBLEMS)
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The nurse receives an order for a parenteral dose of promethazine (Phenergan) and prepares to administer the medication to a 38-year-old male patient with nausea and repeated vomiting. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
A. Administer the medication subcutaneously for fast absorption.B. Administer the medication into an arterial line to prevent extravasation.C. Administer the medication deep into the muscle to prevent tissue damage.D. Administer the medication with 0.5 mL of lidocaine to decrease injection pain.
- Administer the medication deep into the muscle to prevent tissue damage. +Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine administered to relieve nausea and vomiting.+Deep muscle injection is the preferred route of injection administration.+This medication should not be administered into an artery or under the skin because of the risk of severe tissue injury, including gangrene.+When administered IV, a risk factor is that it can leach out from the vein and cause serious damage to surrounding tissue.
The nurse cares for a postoperative patient who has just vomited yellow green liquid and reports nausea. Which action would be an appropriate nursing intervention?
A. Offer the patient a herbal supplement such as ginseng.B. Apply a cool washcloth to the forehead and provide mouth care.C. Take the patient for a walk in the hallway to promote peristalsis.D. Discontinue any medications that may cause nausea or vomiting.
- Apply a cool washcloth to the forehead and provide mouth care.+Cleansing the face and hands with a cool washcloth and providing mouth care are appropriate comfort interventions for nausea and vomiting.+Ginseng is not used to treat postoperative nausea and vomiting.+Unnecessary activity should be avoided.+The patient should rest in a quiet environment.+Medications may be temporarily withheld until the acute phase is over, but the medications should not be discontinued without consultation with the health care provider.
Which patients would be at highest risk for developing oral candidiasis?
A. A 74-year-old patient who has vitamin B and C deficienciesB. A 22-year-old patient who smokes 2 packs of cigarettes per dayC. A 58-year-old patient who is receiving amphotericin B for 2 daysD. A 32-year-old patient who is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3 weeks
- A 32-year-old patient who is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3 weeks+Oral candidiasis is caused by prolonged antibiotic treatment (e.g., ciprofloxacin) or high doses of corticosteroids.+Amphotericin B is used to treat candidiasis.+Vitamin B and C deficiencies are rare but may lead to Vincent's infection.+Use of tobacco products leads to stomatitis.
A 74-year-old female patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) takes over-the-counter medications. For which medication, if taken long-term, should the nurse teach about an increased risk of fractures?
A. Sucralfate (Carafate)B. Cimetidine (Tagamet)C. Omeprazole (Prilosec)D. Metoclopramide (Reglan)
- Omeprazole (Prilosec)+There is a potential link between proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) (e.g., omeprazole) use and bone metabolism.+Long-term use or high doses of PPIs may increase the risk of fractures of the hip, wrist, and spine.+Lower doses or shorter duration of therapy should be considered.
The nurse teaches senior citizens at a community center how to prevent food poisoning at their informal social events. The nurse determines that teaching is successful if a community member makes which statement?
A. "Pasteurized juices and milk are safe to drink."B. "Alfalfa sprouts are safe if rinsed before eating."C. "Fresh fruits do not need to be washed before eating."D. "Ground beef is safe to eat if cooked until it is brown."
- "Pasteurized juices and milk are safe to drink."+Drink only pasteurized milk, juice, or cider.+Ground beef should be cooked thoroughly.+Browned meat can still harbor live bacteria.+Cook ground beef until a thermometer read NCLEXs at least 160° F. If a thermometer is unavailable, decrease risk of illness by cooking the ground beef until there is no pink color in the middle.+Fruits and vegetables should be washed thoroughly, especially those that will not be cooked.+Persons who are immunocompromised or older should avoid eating alfalfa sprouts until the safety of the sprouts can be ensured.

CHAPTER 43 - NCLEX (LOWER GASTROINTESTINAL PROBLEMS)
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The nurse is conducting discharge teaching for a patient with metastatic lung cancer who was admitted with a bowel impaction. Which instructions would be most helpful to prevent further episodes of constipation?
A. Maintain a high intake of fluid and fiber in the diet.B. Reduce intake of medications causing constipation.C. Eat several small meals per day to maintain bowel motility.D. Sit upright during meals to increase bowel motility by gravity.
- Maintain a high intake of fluid and fiber in the diet.+reased fluid intake and a high-fiber diet reduce the incidence of constipation caused by immobility, medications, and other factors.+Fluid and fiber provide bulk that in turn increases peristalsis and bowel motility. Analgesics taken for lung cancer probably cannot be reduced.+Other medications may decrease constipation, but it is best to avoid laxatives. +Eating several small meals per day and position do not facilitate bowel motility. +Defecation is easiest when the person sits on the commode with the knees higher than the hips.
The nurse should administer an as-needed dose of magnesium hydroxide (MOM) after noting what information while reviewing a patient's medical record?
A. Abdominal pain and bloatingB. No bowel movement for 3 daysC. A decrease in appetite by 50% over 24 hoursD. Muscle tremors and other signs of hypomagnesemia.
- No bowel movement for 3 days+MOM is an osmotic laxative that produces a soft, semisolid stool usually within 15 minutes to 3 hours.+This medication would benefit the patient who has not had a bowel movement for 3 days.+MOM would not be given for abdominal pain and bloating, decreased appetite, or signs of hypomagnesemia.
The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of bisacodyl (Dulcolax). In explaining the medication to the patient, the nurse would explain that it acts in what way?
A. reases bulk in the stoolB. Lubricates the intestinal tract to soften fecesC. reases fluid retention in the intestinal tractD. reases peristalsis by stimulating nerves in the colon wall
- reases peristalsis by stimulating nerves in the colon wall+Bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that aids in producing a bowel movement by irritating the colon wall and stimulating enteric nerves.+It is available in oral and suppository forms.+Fiber and bulk forming drugs increase bulk in the stool; water and stool softeners soften feces, and saline and osmotic solutions cause fluid retention in the intestinal tract.
The nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of docusate sodium (Colace) when the patient reports an episode of loose stool and does not want to take the medication. What is the appropriate action by the nurse?
A. Write an incident report about this untoward event.B. Attempt to have the family convince the patient to take the ordered dose.C. Withhold the medication at this time and try to administer it later in the day.D. Chart the dose as not given on the medical record and explain in the nursing progress notes.
- Chart the dose as not given on the medical record and explain in the nursing progress notes.+Whenever a patient refuses medication, the dose should be charted as not given with an explanation of the reason documented in the nursing progress notes.+In this instance, the refusal indicates good judgment by the patient, and the patient should not be encouraged to take it today.
What should the nurse instruct the patient to do to best enhance the effectiveness of a daily dose of docusate sodium (Colace)?
A. Take a dose of mineral oil at the same time.B. Add extra salt to food on at least one meal tray.C. Ensure dietary intake of 10 g of fiber each day.D. Take each dose with a full glass of water or other liquid.
- Take each dose with a full glass of water or other liquid.+Docusate lowers the surface tension of stool, permitting water and fats to penetrate and soften the stool for easier passage.+The patient should take the dose with a full glass of water and should increase overall fluid intake, if able, to enhance effectiveness of the medication.+Dietary fiber intake should be a minimum of 20 g daily to prevent constipation. +Mineral oil and extra salt are not recommended.
The nurse would question the use of which cathartic agent in a patient with renal insufficiency?
A. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)B. Lubiprostone (Amitiza)C. Cascara sagrada (Senekot)D. Magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia)
- Magnesium hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia)+Milk of Magnesia may cause hypermagnesemia in patients with renal insufficiency.+The nurse should question this order with the health care provider. Bisacodyl, lubiprostone, and cascara sagrada are safe to use in patients with renal insufficiency as long as the patient is not currently dehydrated.
A patient who is given a bisacodyl (Dulcolax) suppository asks the nurse how long it will take to work. The nurse replies that the patient will probably need to use the bedpan or commode within which time frame after administration?
A. 2-5 minutesB. 15-60 minutesC. 2-4 hoursD. 6-8 hours
- 15-60 minutes+Bisacodyl suppositories usually are effective within 15 to 60 minutes of administration, so the nurse should plan accordingly to assist the patient to use the bedpan or commode.
The nurse is caring for a 68-year-old patient admitted with abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The patient has an abdominal mass, and a bowel obstruction is suspected. The nurse auscultating the abdomen listens for which type of bowel sounds that are consistent with the patient's clinical picture?
A. Low-pitched and rumbling above the area of obstructionB. High-pitched and hypoactive below the area of obstructionC. Low-pitched and hyperactive below the area of obstructionD. High-pitched and hyperactive above the area of obstruction
- High-pitched and hyperactive above the area of obstruction+Early in intestinal obstruction, the patient's bowel sounds are hyperactive and high-pitched, sometimes referred to as "tinkling" above the level of the obstruction.+This occurs because peristaltic action increases to "push past" the area of obstruction.+As the obstruction becomes complete, bowel sounds decrease and finally become absent.
The nurse is planning care for a 68-year-old patient with an abdominal mass and suspected bowel obstruction. Which factor in the patient's history increases the patient's risk for colorectal cancer?
A. OsteoarthritisB. History of colorectal polypsC. History of lactose intoleranceD. Use of herbs as dietary supplements
- History of colorectal polyps+A history of colorectal polyps places this patient at risk for colorectal cancer.+This tissue can degenerate over time and become malignant. +Osteoarthritis, lactose intolerance, and the use of herbs do not pose additional risk to the patient.
The nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube into a 68-year-old female patient who is nauseated and vomiting. She has an abdominal mass and suspected small intestinal obstruction. The patient asks the nurse why this procedure is necessary. What response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. "The tube will help to drain the stomach contents and prevent further vomiting."B. "The tube will push past the area that is blocked and thus help to stop the vomiting."C. "The tube is just a standard procedure before many types of surgery to the abdomen."D. "The tube will let us measure your stomach contents so that we can plan what type of IV fluid replacement would be best."
- "The tube will help to drain the stomach contents and prevent further vomiting."+The NG tube is used to decompress the stomach by draining stomach contents and thereby prevent further vomiting.+The NG tube will not push past the blocked area.+Potential surgery is not currently indicated.+The location of the obstruction will determine the type of fluid to use, not measure the amount of stomach contents.
A 61-year-old patient with suspected bowel obstruction had a nasogastric tube inserted at 4:00 AM. The nurse shares in the morning report that the day shift staff should check the tube for patency at what times?
A. 7:00 AM, 10:00 AM, and 1:00 PMB. 8:00 AM, 12:00 PM, and 4:00 PMC. 9:00 AM and 3:00 PMD. 9:00 AM, 12:00 PM, and 3:00 PM
- 8:00 AM, 12:00 PM, and 4:00 PM+A nasogastric tube should be checked for patency routinely at 4-hour intervals.+Thus if the tube were inserted at 4:00 AM, it would be due to be checked at 8:00 AM, 12:00 PM, and 4:00 PM.
A colectomy is scheduled for a 38-year-old woman with ulcerative colitis. The nurse should plan to include what prescribed measure in the preoperative preparation of this patient?
A. Instruction on irrigating a colostomyB. Administration of a cleansing enemaC. A high-fiber diet the day before surgeryD. Administration of IV antibiotics for bowel preparation
- Administration of a cleansing enema+Preoperative preparation for bowel surgery typically includes bowel cleansing with antibiotics, such as oral neomycin and cleansing enemas, including Fleet enemas.+Instructions to irrigate the colostomy will be done postoperatively.+Oral antibiotics are given preoperatively, and an IV antibiotic may be used in the OR.+A clear liquid diet will be used the day before surgery with the bowel cleansing.
What information would have the highest priority to be included in preoperative teaching for a 68-year-old patient scheduled for a colectomy?
A. How to care for the woundB. How to deep breathe and coughC. The location and care of drains after surgeryD. Which medications will be used during surgery
- How to deep breathe and cough+Because anesthesia, an abdominal incision, and pain can impair the patient's respiratory status in the postoperative period, it is of high priority to teach the patient to cough and deep breathe.+Otherwise, the patient could develop atelectasis and pneumonia, which would delay early recovery from surgery and hospital discharge.+Care for the wound and location and care of the drains will be briefly discussed preoperatively, but done again with higher priority after surgery. +Knowing which drugs will be used during surgery may not be meaningful to the patient and should be reviewed with the patient by the anesthesiologist.
The nurse asks a 68-year-old patient scheduled for colectomy to sign the operative permit as directed in the physician's preoperative orders. The patient states that the physician has not really explained very well what is involved in the surgical procedure. What is the most appropriate action by the nurse?
A. Ask family members whether they have discussed the surgical procedure with the physician.B. Have the patient sign the form and state the physician will visit to explain the procedure before surgery.C. Explain the planned surgical procedure as well as possible and have the patient sign the consent form.D. Delay the patient's signature on the consent and notify the physician about the conversation with the patient.
- Delay the patient's signature on the consent and notify the physician about the conversation with the patient.+The patient should not be asked to sign a consent form unless the procedure has been explained to the satisfaction of the patient.+The nurse should notify the physician, who has the responsibility for obtaining consent.
Two days following a colectomy for an abdominal mass, a patient reports gas pains and abdominal distention. The nurse plans care for the patient based on the knowledge that the symptoms are occurring as a result of
A. impaired peristalsis.B. irritation of the bowel.C. nasogastric suctioning.D. inflammation of the incision site.
- impaired peristalsis+ Until peristalsis returns to normal following anesthesia, the patient may experience slowed gastrointestinal motility leading to gas pains and abdominal distention.+Irritation of the bowel, nasogastric suctioning, and inflammation of the surgical site do not cause gas pains or abdominal distention.
Following bowel resection, a patient has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction, but complains of nausea and abdominal distention. The nurse irrigates the tube as necessary as ordered, but the irrigating fluid does not return. What should be the priority action by the nurse?.
A. Notify the physician.B. Auscultate for bowel sounds.C. Reposition the tube and check for placement.D. Remove the tube and replace it with a new one.
- Reposition the tube and check for placement.+The tube may be resting against the stomach wall.+The first action by the nurse (since this is intestinal surgery and not gastric surgery) is to reposition the tube and check it again for placement.+The physician does not need to be notified unless the tube function cannot be restored by the nurse.+The patient does not have bowel sounds, which is why the NG tube is in place.+The NG tube would not be removed and replaced unless it was no longer in the stomach or the obstruction of the tube could not be relieved.
The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient with a colostomy. The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of famotidine (Pepcid) when the patient asks why the medication was ordered since the patient does not have a history of heartburn or gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). What response by the nurse would be the most appropriate?
A. "This will prevent air from accumulating in the stomach, causing gas pains."B. "This will prevent the heartburn that occurs as a side effect of general anesthesia."C. "The stress of surgery is likely to cause stomach bleeding if you do not receive it."D. "This will reduce the amount of HCl in the stomach until the nasogastric tube is removed and you can eat a regular diet again."
- "This will reduce the amount of HCl in the stomach until the nasogastric tube is removed and you can eat a regular diet again."+Famotidine is an H2-receptor antagonist that inhibits gastric HCl secretion and thus minimizes damage to gastric mucosa while the patient is not eating a regular diet after surgery.+Famotidine does not prevent air from accumulating in the stomach or stop the stomach from bleeding. Heartburn is not a side effect of general anesthesia.
A stroke patient who primarily uses a wheelchair for mobility has diarrhea with fecal incontinence. What should the nurse assess first?
A. Fecal impactionB. Perineal hygieneC. Dietary fiber intakeD. Antidiarrheal agent use
- Fecal impaction+Patients with limited mobility are at risk for fecal impactions due to constipation that may lead to liquid stool leaking around the hardened impacted feces, so assessing for fecal impaction is the priority.+Perineal hygiene can be assessed at the same time. Assessing the dietary fiber and fluid intake and antidiarrheal agent use will be assessed and considered next.
Which clinical manifestations of inflammatory bowel disease are common to both patients with ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn's disease (select all that apply)?
A. Restricted to rectumB. Strictures are common.C. Bloody, diarrhea stoolsD. Cramping abdominal painE. Lesions penetrate intestine.
- Bloody, diarrhea stools - Cramping abdominal pain+Clinical manifestations of UC and Crohn's disease include bloody diarrhea, cramping abdominal pain, and nutritional disorders.+Intestinal lesions associated with UC are usually restricted to the rectum before moving into the colon.+Lesions that penetrate the intestine or cause strictures are characteristic of Crohn's disease.
The wound, ostomy, and continence (WOC) nurse selects the site where the ostomy will be placed. What should be included in the consideration for the site?
A. The patient must be able to see the site.B. Outside the rectus muscle area is the best site.C. It is easier to seal the drainage bag to a protruding area.D. The ostomy will need irrigation, so area should not be tender.
- The patient must be able to see the site.+In selection of the ostomy site, the WOC nurse will want a site visible to the patient so the patient can take care of it, within the rectus muscle to avoid hernias, and on a flat surface to more easily create a good seal with the drainage bag.
When evaluating the patient's understanding about the care of the ileostomy, what statement by the patient indicates the patient needs more teaching?
A. "I will be able to regulate when I have stools."B. "I will be able to wear the pouch until it leaks."C. "Dried fruit and popcorn must be chewed very well."D. "The drainage from my stoma can damage my skin."
- "I will be able to regulate when I have stools."+The ileostomy is in the ileum and drains liquid stool frequently, unlike the colostomy which has more formed stool the further distal the ostomy is in the colon.+The ileostomy pouch is usually worn 4-7 days or until it leaks.+It must be changed immediately if it leaks because the drainage is very irritating to the skin. +To avoid obstruction, popcorn, dried fruit, coconut, mushrooms, olives, stringy vegetables, food with skin, and meats with casings must be chewed extremely well before swallowing because of the narrow diameter of the ileostomy lumen.
When teaching the patient about the diet for diverticular disease, which foods should the nurse recommend?
A. White bread NCLEX, cheese, and green beansB. Fresh tomatoes, pears, and corn flakesC. Oranges, baked potatoes, and raw carrotsD. Dried beans, All Bran (100%) cereal, and raspberries
- Dried beans, All Bran (100%) cereal, and raspberries+A high fiber diet is recommended for diverticular disease. Dried beans, All Bran (100%) cereal, and raspberries all have higher amounts of fiber than white bread NCLEX, cheese, green beans, fresh tomatoes, pears, corn flakes, oranges, baked potatoes, and raw carrots.Awarded 0.0 points out of 1.0 possible points.

CHAPTER 43 - PRE-TEST (LOWER GASTROINTESTINAL PROBLEMS)
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The nurse is admitting a 68-year-old man with severe dehydration and frequent watery diarrhea. He just completed a 10-day outpatient course of antibiotic therapy for bacterial pneumonia. It is most important for the nurse to take which action?
A. Wear a mask to prevent transmission of infection.B. Wipe equipment with ammonia-based disinfectant.C. Instruct visitors to use the alcohol-based hand sanitizer.D. Don gloves and gown before entering the patient's room.
- Don gloves and gown before entering the patient's room.+Clostridium difficile is an antibiotic-associated diarrhea transmitted by contact, and the spores are extremely difficult to kill.+Patients with suspected or confirmed infection with C. difficile should be placed in a private room and gloves and gowns should be worn by visitors and health care providers.+Alcohol-based hand cleaners and ammonia-based disinfectants are ineffective and do not kill all of the spores.+Equipment cannot be shared with other patients, and a disposable stethoscope and individual patient thermometer are kept in the room. Objects should be disinfected with a 10% solution of household bleach.
After an abdominal hysterectomy, a 45-year-old woman complains of severe gas pains. Her abdomen is distended. It is most appropriate for the nurse to administer which prescribed medication?
A. Morphine sulfateB. Ondansetron (Zofran)C. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)D. Metoclopramide (Reglan)
- Metoclopramide (Reglan)+Swallowed air and reduced peristalsis after surgery can result in abdominal distention and gas pains.+Early ambulation helps restore peristalsis and eliminate flatus and gas pain.+Medications used to reduce gas pain include metoclopramide (Reglan) or alvimopan (Entereg) to stimulate peristalsis.
A 20-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle crash with suspected abdominal trauma. What assessment finding by the nurse is of highest priority?
A. Nausea and vomitingB. Hyperactive bowel soundsC. Firmly distended abdomenD. Abrasions on all extremities
- Firmly distended abdomen+Clinical manifestations of abdominal trauma are guarding and splinting of the abdominal wall; a hard, distended abdomen (indicating possible intraabdominal bleeding); decreased or absent bowel sounds; contusions, abrasions, or bruising over the abdomen; abdominal pain; pain over the scapula; hematemesis or hematuria; and signs of hypovolemic shock (tachycardia and decreased blood pressure).
The nurse identifies that which patient is at highest risk for developing colon cancer?
A. A 28-year-old male who has a body mass index of 27 kgm2B. A 32-year-old female with a 12-year history of ulcerative colitisC. A 52-year-old male who has followed a vegetarian diet for 24 yearsD. A 58-year-old female taking prescribed estrogen replacement therapy
- A 32-year-old female with a 12-year history of ulcerative colitis+Risk for colon cancer includes personal history of inflammatory bowel disease (especially ulcerative colitis for longer than 10 years); obesity (body mass index ≥ 30 kgm2); family (first-degree relative) or personal history of colorectal cancer, adenomatous polyposis, hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer syndrome; red meat (=7 servingsweek); cigarette use; and alcohol (=4 drinksweek).
A 58-year-old woman is being discharged home today after ostomy surgery for colon cancer. The nurse should assign the patient to which staff member?
A. A nursing assistant on the unit who also has hospice experienceB. A licensed practical nurse who has worked on the unit for 10 yearsC. A registered nurse with 6 months of experience on the surgical unitD. A registered nurse who has floated to the surgical unit from pediatrics
- A registered nurse with 6 months of experience on the surgical unit+The patient needs ostomy care directionsreinforcement at discharge and should be assigned to a registered nurse with experience in providing discharge teaching for ostomy care.+Teaching should not be delegated to a licensed practicalvocational nurse or unlicensed assistive personnel.

CHAPTER 44 - NCLEX (Liver, Pancreas, and Biliary Tract Problems)
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A 54-year-old patient admitted with diabetes mellitus, malnutrition, osteomyelitis, and alcohol abuse has a serum amylase level of 280 UL and a serum lipase level of 310 UL. To what diagnosis does the nurse attribute these findings?
A. MalnutritionB. OsteomyelitisC. Alcohol abuseD. Diabetes mellitus
- Alcohol abuse+The patient with alcohol abuse could develop pancreatitis as a complication, which would increase the serum amylase (normal 30-122 UL) and serum lipase (normal 31-186 UL) levels as shown.
The health care provider orders lactulose for a patient with hepatic encephalopathy. The nurse will monitor for effectiveness of this medication for this patient by assessing what?
A. Relief of constipationB. Relief of abdominal painC. Decreased liver enzymesD. Decreased ammonia levels
- Decreased ammonia levels+Hepatic encephalopathy is a complication of liver disease and is associated with elevated serum ammonia levels.+Lactulose traps ammonia in the intestinal tract. Its laxative effect then expels the ammonia from the colon, resulting in decreased serum ammonia levels and correction of hepatic encephalopathy.
The family of a patient newly diagnosed with hepatitis A asks the nurse what they can do to prevent becoming ill themselves. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. "The hepatitis vaccine will provide immunity from this exposure and future exposures."B. "I am afraid there is nothing you can do since the patient was infectious before admission."C. "You will need to be tested first to make sure you don't have the virus before we can treat you."D. "An injection of immunoglobulin will need to be given to prevent or minimize the effects from this exposure."
- "An injection of immunoglobulin will need to be given to prevent or minimize the effects from this exposure."+Immunoglobulin provides temporary (1-2 months) passive immunity and is effective for preventing hepatitis A if given within 2 weeks after exposure.+It may not prevent infection in all persons, but it will at least modify the illness to a subclinical infection.+The hepatitis vaccine is only used for preexposure prophylaxis.
When planning care for a patient with cirrhosis, the nurse will give highest priority to which nursing diagnosis?
A. Impaired skin integrity related to edema, ascites, and pruritusB. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to anorexiaC. Excess fluid volume related to portal hypertension and hyperaldosteronismD. Ineffective breathing pattern related to pressure on diaphragm and reduced lung volume
- Ineffective breathing pattern related to pressure on diaphragm and reduced lung volume+Although all of these nursing diagnoses are appropriate and important in the care of a patient with cirrhosis, airway and breathing are always the highest priorities.
When caring for a patient with liver disease, the nurse recognizes the need to prevent bleeding resulting from altered clotting factors and rupture of varices. Which nursing interventions would be appropriate to achieve this outcome (select all that apply)?
A. Use smallest gauge needle possible when giving injections or drawing blood.B. Teach patient to avoid straining at stool, vigorous blowing of nose, and coughing.C. Advise patient to use soft-bristle toothbrush and avoid ingestion of irritating food.D. Apply gentle pressure for the shortest possible time period after performing venipuncture.E. Instruct patient to avoid aspirin and NSAIDs to prevent hemorrhage when varices are present.
- Use smallest gauge needle possible when giving injections or drawing blood - Teach patient to avoid straining at stool, vigorous blowing of nose, and coughing. - Advise patient to use soft-bristle toothbrush and avoid ingestion of irritating food. Instruct patient to avoid aspirin and NSAIDs to prevent hemorrhage when varices are present.+Using the smallest gauge needle for injections will minimize the risk of bleeding into the tissues.+Avoiding straining, nose blowing, and coughing will reduce the risk of hemorrhage at these sites.+The use of a soft-bristle toothbrush and avoidance of irritating food will reduce injury to highly vascular mucous membranes.+The nurse should apply gentle but prolonged pressure to venipuncture sites to minimize the risk of bleeding.+Aspirin and NSAIDs should not be used in patients with liver disease because they interfere with platelet aggregation, thus increasing the risk for bleeding.
A patient with type 2 diabetes and cirrhosis asks the nurse if it would be okay to take silymarin (milk thistle) to help minimize liver damage. The nurse responds based on what knowledge?
A. Milk thistle may affect liver enzymes and thus alter drug metabolism.B. Milk thistle is generally safe in recommended doses for up to 10 years.C. There is unclear scientific evidence for the use of milk thistle in treating cirrhosis.D. Milk thistle may elevate the serum glucose levels and is thus contraindicated in diabetes.
- Milk thistle may affect liver enzymes and thus alter drug metabolism.+There is good scientific evidence that there is no real benefit from using milk thistle to protect the liver cells from toxic damage in the treatment of cirrhosis.+Milk thistle does affect liver enzymes and thus could alter drug metabolism. .+Therefore patients will need to be monitored for drug interactions. It is noted to be safe for up to 6 years, not 10 years, and it may lower, not elevate, blood glucose levels.
When caring for a patient with a biliary obstruction, the nurse will anticipate administering which vitamin supplements (select all that apply)?
A. Vitamin A CorrectB. Vitamin D CorrectC. Vitamin E CorrectD. Vitamin K CorrectE. Vitamin B
- Vitamin A Correct - Vitamin D - Vitamin E - Vitamin K+Biliary obstruction prevents bile from entering the small intestine and thus prevents the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.+Vitamins A, D, E, and K are all fat-soluble and thus would need to be supplemented in a patient with biliary obstruction.
A patient who has hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) in the serum is being discharged with pain medication after knee surgery. Which medication order should the nurse question because it is most likely to cause hepatic complications?
A. Tramadol (Ultram)B. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid)C. Oxycodone with aspirin (Percodan)D. Hydrocodone with acetaminophen (Vicodin)
- Hydrocodone with acetaminophen (Vicodin)+The analgesic with acetaminophen should be questioned because this patient is a chronic carrier of hepatitis B and is likely to have impaired liver function.+Acetaminophen is not suitable for this patient because it is converted to a toxic metabolite in the liver after absorption, increasing the risk of hepatocellular damage.
The condition of a patient who has cirrhosis of the liver has deteriorated. Which diagnostic study NCLEX would help determine if the patient has developed liver cancer?
A. Serum α-fetoprotein levelB. Ventilationperfusion scanC. Hepatic structure ultrasoundD. Abdominal girth measurement
- Hepatic structure ultrasound+Hepatic structure ultrasound, CT, and MRI are used to screen and diagnose liver cancer. +Serum α-fetoprotein level may be elevated with liver cancer or other liver problems. +Ventilationperfusion scans do not diagnose liver cancer.+Abdominal girth measurement would not differentiate between cirrhosis and liver cancer.
The patient with right upper quadrant abdominal pain has an abdominal ultrasound that reveals cholelithiasis. What should the nurse expect to do for this patient?
A. Prevent all oral intake.B. Control abdominal pain.C. Provide enteral feedings.D. Avoid dietary cholesterol.
- Control abdominal pain+Patients with cholelithiasis can have severe pain, so controlling pain is important until the problem can be treated.+NPO status may be needed if the patient will have surgery but will not be used for all patients with cholelithiasis.+Enteral feedings should not be needed, and avoiding dietary cholesterol is not used to treat cholelithiasis.
A patient with cholelithiasis needs to have the gallbladder removed. Which patient assessment is a contraindication for a cholecystectomy?
A. Low-grade fever of 100° F and dehydrationB. Abscess in the right upper quadrant of the abdomenC. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 54 secondsD. Multiple obstructions in the cystic and common bile duct
- Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 54 seconds+An aPTT of 54 seconds is above normal and indicates insufficient clotting ability. If the patient had surgery, significant bleeding complications postoperatively are very likely.+Fluids can be given to eliminate the dehydration; the abscess can be assessed, and the obstructions in the cystic and common bile duct would be relieved with the cholecystectomy.
When teaching the patient with acute hepatitis C (HCV), the patient demonstrates understanding when the patient makes which statement?
A. "I will use care when kissing my wife to prevent giving it to her."B. "I will need to take adofevir (Hepsera) to prevent chronic HCV."C. "Now that I have had HCV, I will have immunity and not get it again."D. "I will need to be checked for chronic HCV and other liver problems."
- "I will need to be checked for chronic HCV and other liver problems."+The majority of patients who acquire HCV usually develop chronic infection, which may lead to cirrhosis or liver cancer.+HCV is not transmitted via saliva, but percutaneously and via high-risk sexual activity exposure.+The treatment for acute viral hepatitis focuses on resting the body and adequate nutrition for liver regeneration. Adofevir (Hepsera) is taken for severe hepatitis B (HBV) with liver failure.+Chronic HCV is treated with pegylated interferon with ribavirin. Immunity with HCV does not occur as it does with HAV and HBV, so the patient may be reinfected with another type of HCV.
The patient with cirrhosis has an increased abdominal girth from ascites. The nurse should know that this fluid gathers in the abdomen for which reasons (select all that apply)?
A. There is decreased colloid oncotic pressure from the liver's inability to synthesize albumin. CorrectB. Hyperaldosteronism related to damaged hepatocytes increases sodium and fluid retention. CorrectC. Portal hypertension pushes proteins from the blood vessels, causing leaking into the peritoneal cavity.CorrectD. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus stimulate thirst, which causes the stimulation to take in fluids orally.E. Overactivity of the enlarged spleen results in increased removal of blood cells from the circulation, which decreases the vascular pressure.
- There is decreased colloid oncotic pressure from the liver's inability to synthesize albumin.- Hyperaldosteronism related to damaged hepatocytes increases sodium and fluid retention. - Portal hypertension pushes proteins from the blood vessels, causing leaking into the peritoneal cavity.+The ascites related to cirrhosis are caused by decreased colloid oncotic pressure from the lack of albumin from liver inability to synthesize it and the portal hypertension that shifts the protein from the blood vessels to the peritoneal cavity, and hyperaldosteronism which increases sodium and fluid retention.+The intake of fluids orally and the removal of blood cells by the spleen do not directly contribute to ascites.
The patient with cirrhosis is being taught self-care. Which statement indicates the patient needs more teaching?
A. "If I notice a fast heart rate or irregular beats, this is normal for cirrhosis."B. "I need to take good care of my belly and ankle skin where it is swollen."C. "A scrotal support may be more comfortable when I have scrotal edema."D. "I can use pillows to support my head to help me breathe when I am in bed."
- "If I notice a fast heart rate or irregular beats, this is normal for cirrhosis."+If the patient with cirrhosis experiences a fast or irregular heart rate, it may be indicative of hypokalemia and should be reported to the health care provider, as this is not normal for cirrhosis.+Edematous tissue is subject to breakdown and needs meticulous skin care.+Pillows and a semi-Fowler's or Fowler's position will increase respiratory efficiency.+A scrotal support may improve comfort if there is scrotal edema.
The patient with a history of lung cancer and hepatitis C has developed liver failure and is considering liver transplantation. After the comprehensive evaluation, the nurse knows that which factor discovered may be a contraindication for liver transplantation?
A. Has completed a college educationB. Has been able to stop smoking cigarettesC. Has well-controlled type 1 diabetes mellitusD. The chest x-ray showed another lung cancer lesion.
- The chest x-ray showed another lung cancer lesion.+Contraindications for liver transplant include severe extrahepatic disease, advanced hepatocellular carcinoma or other cancer, ongoing drug andor alcohol abuse, and the inability to comprehend or comply with the rigorous post-transplant course.
The patient with sudden pain in the left upper quadrant radiating to the back and vomiting was diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. What intervention(s) should the nurse expect to include in the patient's plan of care?
A. Immediately start enteral feeding to prevent malnutrition.B. Insert an NG and maintain NPO status to allow pancreas to rest.C. Initiate early prophylactic antibiotic therapy to prevent infection.D. Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours for pain relief.
- Insert an NG and maintain NPO status to allow pancreas to rest.+Initial treatment with acute pancreatitis will include an NG tube if there is vomiting and being NPO to decrease pancreatic enzyme stimulation and allow the pancreas to rest and heal. Fluid will be administered to treat or prevent shock.+The pain will be treated with IV morphine because of the NPO status.+Enteral feedings will only be used for the patient with severe acute pancreatitis in whom oral intake is not resumed. Antibiotic therapy is only needed with acute necrotizing pancreatitis and signs of infection.
The patient with suspected pancreatic cancer is having many diagnostic studies done. Which one can be used to establish the diagnosis of pancreatic adenocarcinoma and for monitoring the response to treatment?
A. Spiral CT scanB. A PETCT scanC. Abdominal ultrasoundD. Cancer-associated antigen 19-9
- Cancer-associated antigen 19-9+The cancer-associated antigen 19-9 (CA 19-9) is the tumor marker used for the diagnosis of pancreatic adenocarcinoma and for monitoring the response to treatment.+Although a spiral CT scan may be the initial study NCLEX done and provides information on metastasis and vascular involvement, this test and the PETCT scan or abdominal ultrasound do not provide additional information.
When providing discharge teaching for the patient after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, what information should the nurse include?
A. A lower-fat diet may be better tolerated for several weeks.B. Do not return to work or normal activities for 3 weeks.C. Bile-colored drainage will probably drain from the incision.D. Keep the bandages on and the puncture site dry until it heals.
- A lower-fat diet may be better tolerated for several weeks.+Although the usual diet can be resumed, a low-fat diet is usually better tolerated for several weeks following surgery.+Normal activities can be gradually resumed as the patient tolerates.+Bile-colored drainage or pus, redness, swelling, severe pain, and fever may all indicate infection.+The bandage may be removed the day after surgery, and the patient can shower.

CHAPTER 44 - PRE-TEST (Liver, Pancreas, and Biliary Tract Problems)
-
The nurse is caring for a woman recently diagnosed with viral hepatitis A. Which individual should the nurse refer for an immunoglobin (IG) injection?
A. A caregiver who lives in the same household with the patientB. A friend who delivers meals to the patient and family each weekC. A relative with a history of hepatitis A who visits the patient dailyD. A child living in the home who received the hepatitis A vaccine 3 months ago
- A caregiver who lives in the same household with the patient+IG is recommended for persons who do not have anti-HAV antibodies and are exposed as a result of close contact with persons who have HAV or foodborne exposure.+Persons who have received a dose of HAV vaccine more than 1 month previously or who have a history of HAV infection do not require IG.
The nurse provides discharge instructions for a 64-year-old woman with ascites and peripheral edema related to cirrhosis. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates teaching was effective?
A. "It is safe to take acetaminophen up to four times a day for pain."B. "Lactulose (Cephulac) should be taken every day to prevent constipation."C. "Herbs and other spices should be used to season my foods instead of salt."D. "I will eat foods high in potassium while taking spironolactone (Aldactone)."
- "Herbs and other spices should be used to season my foods instead of salt."+A low-sodium diet is indicated for the patient with ascites and edema related to cirrhosis. +Table salt is a well-known source of sodium and should be avoided.+Alternatives to salt to season foods include the use of seasonings such as garlic, parsley, onion, lemon juice, and spices.+Pain medications such as acetaminophen, aspirin, and ibuprofen should be avoided as these medications may be toxic to the liver. The patient should avoid potentially hepatotoxic over-the-counter drugs (e.g., acetaminophen) because the diseased liver is unable to metabolize these drugs.+Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic.+Lactulose results in the acidification of feces in bowel and trapping of ammonia, causing its elimination in feces.
The nurse is caring for a 55-year-old man patient with acute pancreatitis resulting from gallstones. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?
A. HematocheziaB. Left upper abdominal painC. Ascites and peripheral edemaD. Temperature over 102o F (38.9o C)
- Left upper abdominal pain+Abdominal pain (usually in the left upper quadrant) is the predominant manifestation of acute pancreatitis.+Other manifestations of acute pancreatitis include nausea and vomiting, low-grade fever, leukocytosis, hypotension, tachycardia, and jaundice.+Abdominal tenderness with muscle guarding is common.+Bowel sounds may be decreased or absent. Ileus may occur and causes marked abdominal distention. .+Areas of cyanosis or greenish to yellow-brown discoloration of the abdominal wall may occur.+Other areas of ecchymoses are the flanks (Grey Turner's spots or sign, a bluish flank discoloration) and the periumbilical area (Cullen's sign, a bluish periumbilical discoloration).
The nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient is at highest risk for pancreatic cancer?
A. A 38-year-old Hispanic female who is obese and has hyperinsulinemiaB. A 23-year-old who has cystic fibrosis-related pancreatic enzyme insufficiencyC. A 72-year-old African American male who has smoked cigarettes for 50 yearsD. A 19-year-old who has a 5-year history of uncontrolled type 1 diabetes mellitus
- A 72-year-old African American male who has smoked cigarettes for 50 years+Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include chronic pancreatitis, diabetes mellitus, age, cigarette smoking, family history of pancreatic cancer, high-fat diet, and exposure to chemicals such as benzidine.+African Americans have a higher incidence of pancreatic cancer than whites.+The most firmly established environmental risk factor is cigarette smoking.+Smokers are two or three times more likely to develop pancreatic cancer as compared with nonsmokers.+The risk is related to duration and number of cigarettes smoked.
The nurse instructs a 50-year-old woman about cholestyramine to reduce pruritis caused by gallbladder disease. Which statement by the patient to the nurse indicates she understands the instructions?
A. "This medication will help me digest fats and fat-soluble vitamins."B. "I will apply the medicated lotion sparingly to the areas where I itch."C. "The medication is a powder and needs to be mixed with milk or juice."D. "I should take this medication on an empty stomach at the same time each day."
- "The medication is a powder and needs to be mixed with milk or juice."+For treatment of pruritus, cholestyramine may provide relief.+This is a resin that binds bile salts in the intestine, increasing their excretion in the feces.+Cholestyramine is in powder form and should be mixed with milk or juice before oral administration.

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The NCLEX is the terrifying barrier between a trained nursing student becoming a registered and practicing nurse. It’s a difficult exam that is designed to elicit critical thinking skills and determine with a 95% confidence interval whether a candidate meets the requirements to pass. To add to the frustration, a nursing candidate has only about a 50% chance of answering the any given NCLEX question correctly.
To say it is stressful, is an understatement.
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Over my years of blogging as a nurse I’ve looked at a lot of questions NCLEX banks. Nearly every one of them that I’ve looked at provided good questions for nursing students. However, many of them lack the proper shell around those questions to make them feel like the real NCLEX experience. They also often suffer in providing adequate rationales so that students can learn from their mistakes when taking the practice tests.
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I skeptical when I first started to look at UWORLD. They are new in the NCLEX prep game and have historically focus on medical board exams. In fact, their question banks are used by 90% of medical students to prepare for their board exams. After looking at the question bank, it was clear why they are a leader in healthcare board prep. I was blown away by how NCLEX-like the style of questions and mechanism for answering those questions are. Out of all the NCLEX testing prep question banks and programs I’ve tried, the UWORLD NCLEX QBANK feels the most like taking the NCLEX.

The NCLEX QBANK is set up to mimic the actual NCLEX test, and I can honestly say it does a better job at that than any our NCLEX question database I’ve seen. The questions have the same level of difficulty as the NCLEX and the types of questions have the same distribution as the NCLEX exam. This means the 30% of questions will be select all that apply and 5-10% will be some other form of alternate formatting like a heat map.
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Can a medical assistant take the nclex pn test?

According to an article by Tammelleo, A. David published in the Regan Report on Nursing Law in-APR-97: On July 7 and 8, 1993, candidates for licensure as prof…essional nurses throughout the country took the NCLEX test. Jennifer Johnson Culpepper was one of 731 candidates who took the Arizona exam at the Phoenix Civic Center. Approximately forty-five minutes into the ninety minute Part One portion of the examination, Dorothy Moore, a proctor assigned to Culpepper's group, noticed suspicious behavior by Culpepper. The proctor saw Culpepper move her body and chair to the left and closer to T. L. Culpepper (T.L.), seated to her immediate left. Although they have the same last name, T.L. and Culpepper are not related. They did not know each other prior to the exam. The proctor then observed Culpepper look at T.L.'s test booklet. She watched Culpepper for several minutes and from different angles. Culpepper continued to turn toward T.L. on her left, return to her own test booklet and mark it. The proctor then asked James Mitchell, assistant examiner, to watch Culpepper. Mitchell saw Culpepper engage in the same suspicious behavior. The two times that Mitchell checked to see if Culpepper and T.L. were working on the same part of the exam, the booklets were opened to the same page. After concluding that Culpepper was looking at T.L.'s exam booklet, Mitchell reported the situation to Constance Connell, the examiner in charge. Connell also observed the same behavior that both the proctor and the assistant examiner had observed. Part Two of the exam took place in the afternoon of July 7th. The examiner instructed Mitchell to sit in a chair directly in front of Culpepper during Part Two, to monitor her. He did so and continued to observe Culpepper looking to her left at T.L.'s booklet. Connell told Culpepper to keep her eyes on her own exam and advised T.L to cover his booklet. On July 8th, the examiners separated the two from each other by six to eight feet. Culpepper was not observed engaging in any further suspicious activity. The examiner filed a cheating incident report regarding Culpepper's suspicious behavior with the National Council of State Nursing Boards. The examiner requested the testing service to conduct a cheating analysis of Culpepper's and T.L.'s exams. The results of the analysis were as follows: The two candidates had 82.8% identical responses in Book One for Part One of the exam. The candidates had 67.7% identical responses in Book Two for Part Two of the exam. For the following day the candidates had 57.0% identical responses in Book Three and 52.2% identical responses in Book Four. A three day hearing was conducted beginning in April, 1994. After the hearing, a Hearing Officer found "substantial evidence" that Culpepper had engaged in "fraud and deceit during the exam by copying your answers from another candidate's test book". The Hearing Officer recommended that the Board deny Culpepper's license application. The Arizona State Board of Nursing denied Culpepper licensure as a professional nurse. Culpepper filed suit against the Board in Superior Court. The Superior Court, Maricopa County, affirmed the decision of the Board. Culpepper appealed. COURT'S OPINION: The Court of Appeals of Arizona affirmed the decision of the Lower Court and the Board. The Court held that "substantial evidence" of Culpepper's cheating supported the Board's decision. The Court found that the Board applied the correct standard of proof and that the denial of Culpepper's application for a nursing license was not an excessive penalty. The Court noted that no Arizona case had addressed the standard of proof required in such hearings. However, the Court noted that the United States Supreme Court considered the issue in a proceeding conducted pursuant to the Federal Administrative Procedures Act, Steadman v. Securities and Exch. Comm'n, 450 U.S. 91, 101 S.Ct. 999, 67 L.Ed.2d 69 (1981). The United States Supreme Court held that a "preponderance of the evidence" standard applied. (MORE)


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A These options have now been added to the CMA SmartDashboard in the IPS tab B The Merge and Override options are not supported in R71 C The options are available in Global Smart Dash boad / IPS tab in Profiles options D From the Provider-1 Properties in MDG, select the Global Policies tab and enable the check box 'Enable legacy SmartDefense merging options' Answer: B QUESTION: 171 You are the responsible administrator for two customers managed by your MSP You must configure each CMA with local objects as well as rules You have to configure the IPS accordingly In addition, you will configure and assign Global Rules for your customers What minimum rights do you need at the MDS? A Provider Superuser B Customer Manager C Customer Superuser D Global Manager Answer: D QUESTION: 172 One of your customers will not renew their subscription for the IPS Software Blade, and decides to cancel their subscription early What happens if they don't allow the IPS service to expire? A When the subscription has ended, the IPS falls back to run only checks that were active with the first version published B Since the customer is still subscribed to IPS service via MDG, all things run as before The MSP has to take care that customers will renew their subscription C New updates are not possible after the IPS service blade has ended, but all checks being downloaded before are still configured and active D IPS update service is free of charge and therefore there is no time limit for it Answer: A QUESTION: 173 You manage several customers with Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 Two of the customers need to be connected via a global VPN using VPN Communities in a Global Rule In the MDG, you configure both Gateways to be enabled for Global use Then you define a Global VPN Community in the Global SmartDashboard How do you configure a rule so that encrypted HTTP traffic is accepted between the corresponding Gateways? A In the menu of the Global SmartDashboard, select Policy > Convert To Simplified Mode, follow the Wizard and define a rule accepting HTTP traffic that fits to the community listed in the column VPN B It's possible to define Global VPN Communities, but it is not possible to use them in a Global Rule Base C In the Global SmartDashboard, define a rule accepting the wanted traffic In the column VPN select the VPN community y5o8u have defined D After having defined a Global VPN Community, the Global Rule Base needs to be assigned to both customers The VPN can only be defined in each (local) CMA individually Answer: A QUESTION: 174 Steve is the Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 Superuser of an MSP having a Provider-1 R71 environment with 2 MDS Manager systems, 4 MDS Containers and 2 MLM's One of the customers of the MSP requires redundancy for the CMA's Steve has already added a secondary CMA, but the customer insists on having one more CMA What is the best way to do this? A Steve can add a third CMA on the same MDS as the secondary CMA as a single customer can only use up to two MDS Containers for CMA's B Provider-1 only supports 2 CMA's per customer, so Steve will have to install a Security Management Server for backing up the CMA C This is not possible as Provider-1 supports only one backup / secondary CMA D Steve can add a third CMA on another MDS Container Answer: D QUESTION: 175 Select the correct statement about the following Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1environment example A This will never work because all the MDS containers must be on the same LAN and it is also a license violation B This setup will not work as the MDS Co5n9tainer-HA can only host CMA-HA's C This will not work as the number of CMA-HA's must be equal to the number of primary CMA's D This setup will work without any issues as Provider-1 supports a mix of Primary and Secondary CMA's on the same MDS Container as long as they are of different customers Answer: D QUESTION: 176 In Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 R71, the Security Management backup server can be installed on: A any platform where Security Management Server is supported B any platform where Security Management Server is supported except Windows or Nokia IPSO C SecurePlatform or Windows Server D only SecurePlatform Pro Answer: B QUESTION: 177 As in the example below, MDS-ManagerAndContainer is Active whereas MDS-Manager2 is in Standby mode If a Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 Superuser logs into MDS- ManagerAndContainer in Read/Write mode using the MDG while the first user is still logged in, and another Provider-1 Superuser tries to log in to MDS-Manager2, what will happen? The second user will: A get an application error and the MDG will close B get a message informing him that another user is logged in with Read/Write access Hence, he will be allowed to log in with Read-Only access C also be allowed to log in through the MDG in Read/Write mode and they can both make changes to the Provider-1 configuration within the MDG D get a message informing him that another user is logged in with Read/Write access, and an option to disconnect the first user will be given QUESTION: 178 Which of the following is the correct syntax for mirroring all CMA's from FirstMDS to SecondMDS? A cma_mirror_all -s FirstMDS -t SecondMDS B p1shell/mirrorcma -s FirstMDS -t SecondMDS -c 2 C mdscmd mirrorcma -s FirstMDS -t SecondMDS -c 2 D mirrorcma -s FirstMDS -t SecondMDS -c 2 Answer: C QUESTION: 179 Let's assume that your Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 configuration has only one MDS You want the installation to be redundant, so you decide to set up a secondary MDS Container and Manager While completing the installation, you need to provide the activation key The installation is completed after a reboot The final steps are taken with the MDG connecting to the primary MDS Which of the following statements is TRUE? A When the activation key is provided, synchronization at MDS as well as CMA level is started automatically B The first step is to define the secondary MDS in the MDG and to provide the activation key After this is done, it is not possible to synchronize at MDS level only because only the complete configuration of a MDS can be synchronized (including all CMAs) C Before synchronization can start, both the activation key and performing an Install Database are necessary D When the secondary MDS is defined in the MDG and the activation key has been correct, synchronization at the MDS level can be started immediately Answer: D QUESTION: 180 NetSec MSP has Multi-Domain Management with Provider-1 R71 in their New York network They have 1 MDS Manager and 1 MDS Container on a Solaris server with 10 CMA's NetSec has recently setup a network in Dallas and wants to use the Provider-1 MDS Container hosting backup CMA's for all the 10 customers The management is not in favor of buying a Solaris Server, hence they are asking if they can use SecurePlatform on Intel hardware How can NetSec implement this requirement? SecurePlatform in Dallas and then associate the two to enable High Availability' B As it is not possible to have a secondary CMA on a different operating system, NetSec will have to install 10 Security Management Servers to backup the CMA's' C They can have the new Provider-1 R71 MDS Container on SecurePlatform and host all the secondary CMA's on this MDS; Provider-1 R71 HA supports different operating systems' D They will have to buy a Solaris Server to install the MDS Container and host the secondary CMA's on that as it is required for the HA systems to be running the same operating system and version' Answer: C QUESTION: 181 When importing the configuration of a Management Server, the CMA is also imported The name of the CMA is the same name that the Management Server had before How do you configure a name change to the CMA before the CA is re- established again? A At the MDS, change to the corresponding CMA context using the mdsenv command Then issue the command fwm sic_reset to reset the CA completely B In the MDG, select the CMA you want to change With a right-click on the object, select edit and change the name in the window that opens C In the CLI of the MDS environment, issue the command fwm sic_reset You will be asked which SIC you want to reset Select the appropriate CMA and the name as well as the CMA will be changed D The name of a CMA cannot be changed by design because this name is used in certificates Answer: A QUESTION: 182 Importing an existing Management Server configuration into a MDS via CLI might be useful First, the new customer needs to be defined After having defined the CMA, an existing configuration can be imported How can this be done? A At the CLI of the MDS type\linecma_migrate B It is not possible to import a configuration using CLI This can only done using the MDG C At the CLI of the MDS type\linecma_migrate –s -t D At the CLI of the MDS type\linecma_migrate -t –s Answer: A CheckPoint 156-815-71 Exam (Check Point Certified Managed(R) Security Expert R71) Detailed Information Training & Certification Check Point offers a wide range of education programs, professional certifications and self-study resources developed in-house by Check Point security experts. Training is available from our global network of Authorized Training Centers (ATC). TRAINING CALENDAR FIND A TRAINING CENTER CERTIFICATION FAQ Training Together with our Authorized Training Centers, we offer comprehensive technical training and certifications for IT security professionals who deploy and manage Check Point Security solutions. Entry-level Security Awareness Text book and course covers important principles of CyberSecurity from a vendor neutral perspective. Concepts include issues of physical and document security along with data protection and recovery in the event of data or systems loss. Security Principles Associate Core Security Administrator Training Three-day course covers everything you need to start-up, configure and manage daily operations of Check Point Security Gateway and Management Software Blades systems on the GAiA operating system. Security Administrator R77.30 Security Administrator R80 Core Security Expert Training Advanced three-day course teaches how to build, modify, deploy and troubleshoot Check Point Security Systems on the GAiA operating system. Hands-on lab exercises teach how to debug firewall processes, optimize VPN performance and upgrade Management Servers. Security Engineering NextGen Security Training Learn how to deploy the latest cyber-security solutions to defend and prevent today’s evolving threats Threat Prevention Secure Web Gateway Advanced Security Training Learn to manage virtualized security in high-end networks and advanced security optimization techniques. MDSM with VSX Security Master Custom Training Certifications Check Point Certifications mean expertise with the technology that secures the internet for all Fortune and Global 100 companies. The benefits of becoming Check Point certified include the skills to support and sell Check Point products, 2-year expert access to our SecureKnowledge database and advanced product documentation. Getting Started: A Check Point UserCenter or PartnerMap account is required to receive certification benefits. You can create a new account at the User Center. If you are not sure about your account, please contact Account Services for verification. You also need a Pearson VUE account, and the email address should be the same as your UserCenter account. Check Point Certified Security Administrator (CCSA) R80 Essential certification for IT Admins who manage daily operations of Check Point Security solutions. Course Description and Exam Information Check Point Certified Security Administrator (CCSA) R77.30 Essential certification for IT Admins who manage daily operations of Check Point Security solutions. Course Description and Exam Information Check Point Certified Security Expert (CCSE) R77.30 The next level of certification proves troubleshooting skills and the ability to maximize the performance of security networks. Course Description and Exam Information Check Point Managed Security Expert (CCMSE) Advanced certification proves expertise in Multi-Domain Security Management with Virtual System Extension. Course Description and Exam Information Check Point Certified Security Master (CCSM) R77.30 Our most technical certification proves advanced use of time-saving commands to configure and troubleshoot Check Point Security Systems. GENERAL INQUIRIES Q: What is the difference between “Certification” and “Accreditation”? A: Check Point recognizes those professionals who have passed a rigorous, thorough examination process with a “Certification”. Certifications are based on proctored exams derived from comprehensive job models and detailed instructional objectives. Accreditations are derived from product specific content exams delivered in a less formal examination setting and recognize an individual’s effort to stay current on the latest products. Q: What versions are available? A: Our Current certifications are based on R77.30 and the new R80. Q: How long will R77.30 be available? A: Current projections have the R77.30 exams retiring 3rd quarter 2017. Q: How long does a certification last? A: Certification, like security, must be kept current to be truly effective - which is why we strongly encourage you to constantly refresh and keep your certification current. Certifications expire after 24 months. Q: Where can I take a Check Point certification exam? A: Check Point professional certification exams are proctored through Pearson VUE, a third party testing vendor with over 3.500 locations worldwide. You can register for any Check Point exam and earn your certification by visiting Pearson VUE website and creating a Web Profile. Q: Do I have to take classes in order to take the exams? A: No, it is possible to take an exam with only your own experience or self-study using the Check Point courseware, but we highly recommend taking a class instead. Instructor-led training accelerates and focuses your learning, gives you hands-on experience and an opportunity to make mistakes in the lab, and is much more cost-effective than self-study in your spare time. CHECK POINT EDUCATION SERVICES CERTIFICATION FAQ Updated September 2016 2 Q: What certifications are available? A: Check Point certifications are structured around comprehensive job models for administration, engineering (Expert), enterprise management, and advanced systems (Security Master). Certifications include: Core Security courses establish a strong foundation in essential Check Point product knowledge and skills Certifications Related Courses Exams CCSPA Check Point Certified Security Principles Associate Principles of Network Security #156-110 CCSA Check Point Certified Security Administrator Check Point Security Administration #156-215 CCSE Check Point Certified Security Expert Check Point Security Administration #156-215 Check Point Security Engineering #156-315 Advanced Specializations recognize your proficiency and expertise in specific disciplines and technologies Certifications Related Courses Exams CCSM Check Point Certified Security Master Check Point Certified Security Master #156-115 CCMSE Check Point Managed Security Expert Multi-Domain Security Management with Virtual System Extension #156-820 Q: What are the prerequisites for each Check Point certification? A: Check Point certifications are designed to build upon the knowledge and skills of the previous courses, reinforcing lessons learned and extending your competencies with ever more complex and valuable skills. Certifications Prerequisites CCSPA Check Point Certified Security Principles Associate None CCSA R77 Check Point Certified Security Administrator R77 TCP/IP and routing fundamentals CCSA R80 Check Point Certified Security Administrator R80 TCP/IP and routing fundamentals CCSE R77 Check Point Certified Security Expert R77 CCSA R77 CCSE R77 Update Check Point Certified Security Expert R77 Any prior CCSE up to R65 CCSM Check Point Certified Security Master R77 CCSE R77 CCMSE R77 Check Point Managed Security Expert R77 CCSE R77 Updated September 2016 3 Q: What courses should I take to prepare for the exams? A: To help prepare for exams, you should consider the following corresponding courses: Core Security courses establish a strong foundation in essential Check Point product knowledge and skills Exams Courses Certifications #156-110 Principles of Network Security CCSPA Check Point Certified Security Principles Associate #156-215 Check Point Security Administration R80 CCSA R80 Check Point Certified Security Administrator R80 #156-215 Check Point Security Administration R77 CCSA R77 Check Point Certified Security Administrator R77 #156-215 Check Point Security Administration R77 CCSE R77 Check Point Certified Security Expert R77 #156-315 Check Point Security Engineering R77 #156-915 CCSE R77 Update CCSE R77 Update Check Point Certified Security Expert R77 Advanced Specializations recognize your proficiency and expertise in specific disciplines and technologies Exams Courses Certifications #156-115.77 Check Point Security Master R77 CCSM R77 Check Point Certified Security Master #156-820.77 Multi-Domain Security Management with Virtual System Extension CCMSE R77 Check Point Managed Security Expert R77 Q: Is study material available? A: Exam objectives are posted on the Education Services page for reference, but all official training materials are provided when you attend instructor-led training through one of our Authorized Training Center (ATC) partners. Q: Where can I find training classes? A: Courses are offered through our network of over 230 Authorized Training Centers (ATC) around the globe. Use our partner locator to find an ATC near you and sign up for training today! Q: Are classes available globally? A: Yes! We have Authorized Training Centers (ATC) in over 42 countries worldwide - just use our partner locator to find an ATC near you and sign up for training. If for any reason you can't find an ATC near you, send an email to us directly at training@checkpoint.com and ask about on-site training options. Q: How long are the classes recommended for certification exams? A: Check Point recommends minimum time frames for each course, but individual Authorized Training Centers (ATC) may choose to adjust the time to offer more 'intensive' courses or to cover topics in more detail. You should check with your local ATC for the exact length of each course to be sure the time fits your schedule. Updated September 2016 4 Q: I know that CCSA certification is a prerequisite for CCSE. Can I achieve a CCSE R80 certification with a CCSA R70 or later certification? A: No. Since R80 is a completely new product version with many new features, only CCSA R80 certification provides the background necessary to be a prerequisite to CCSE R80 certification. However, if you have a CCSE based on NGX or the Blade technology, you are eligible to take our upgrade exam #156-915 to earn your CCSE R80 certification. Q: When will my R77 certifications expire? A: Check Point Certifications are good for 24 months. Q: My R70 certifications have already expired. Do I need to start over with CCSA R80 to update to CCSE R80? A: Actually, you don’t. Even though your certification has expired, the eligibility for updates to the latest version has not. If you ever held a CCSE certification, you are eligible for the Update exam. Q: Why has the 156-915.77 exam been removed from the exam list? A: The 156-915.77 exam was retired as soon as the 156-915.80 exam was released. Check Point only offers updates to the latest version of the product. Q: How can I learn about updates in the Check Point Certified Professional Program? A: You can always find the latest information on our News and Updates page, including special offers on the most indemand courses and certifications. Back to top MY INFORMATION Q: Why is my Check Point Professional ID Number important? A: It represents your personal identification with Check Point Software Technologies and establishes proof of your certification. You are only allowed one Certified Professional ID number. Q: How do I get my Check Point Professional ID Number? A: It is assigned to you when you register with VUE for the first time to take an exam. It will be in the form CP00000nnnnn. Q: When do I use my Check Point Professional ID Number? A: Whenever you contact VUE to register for another exam session, and whenever you contact Check Point regarding any certification issue. Q: Why do I need to provide an email address? A: An email address is necessary in order to create your User Center account - your access point for certification benefits - as well as keep you up to date with any important changes or updates. Q: If I change jobs, will I still have access to my certification information and benefits? A: Yes! Your certification is yours. However, since your email address is based on your work email you will want to contact Account Services via accountservices@checkpoint.com to update your User Center account and request that your information be linked to your new email address. Q: How do I advise Check Point of any change of address or other relevant information? A: You can send your profile updates to accountservices@checkpoint.com. Back to top Updated September 2016 5 WHAT ABOUT THE BENEFITS Q: I just passed my exams. When can I expect to receive my certificate? A: Check Point now provides e-Certificates that you can access from your User Center profile. Once we receive your exam results we'll update your User Center account with your new credentials, giving you immediate access to your online benefits like Access to SecureKnowledge and your on-line Certification Profile. Q. How do I download the electronic copy of my certification? A: To download your certificate(s), please follow the instructions below. 1. Log into User Center at https://usercenter.checkpoint.com/usercenter/portal 2. Click "Assets/Info". 3. Click "My Certifications" under "My Info" option. 4. Click "Download" to the right of the certificate to open/save/print. a. Open to print. b. Save to print later. c. Cancel to do nothing. Q: What type of SecureKnowledge access do CCSA's get? A: Advanced Access for the duration of the CCSA contract. Q: What SecureKnowledge access does a CCSE get? A: Advanced Access for the duration of the CCSE contract. Q: What SecureKnowledge access does a CCSM get? A: Expert Access for the duration of the CCSM contract. Q: What SecureKnowledge access does a CCMSE get? A: Advanced Access for the duration of the CCMSE contract. Q: How do I access my benefits? A: By setting up a User Centre account based on the email address you used with VUE, you can have access to our Certified Professionals Only web site and to advanced features of Secure Knowledge. Please try the following: If you do not currently have a User Center account, please visit the following URL: https://usercenter.checkpoint.com/usercenter/index.jsp You may reference at the bottom of the page a section titled "New Customers": 1. Click on the hyperlink titled "Sign Up Now!" 2. Begin completing your profile. 3. Use the email ID provided VUE for testing. 4. Set your own password. Q: How do I find the Certified Professionals Only website? A: By clicking on the link https://www.checkpoint.com/services/education/cpo/index.html Q: Do I have access to Check Point online technical support? A: Yes. As a Certified Professional you have Advanced Access to SecureKnowledge, our online technical knowledge database with thousands of solutions, how to articles, and troubleshooting tips to solve your most difficult issues. Q: Are there logos associated with Check Point certifications? A: Yes. As a certified professional you have usage rights to the logo for your certification level. Logos for each Check Point certification are downloadable from the Certified Professional Only website. Updated September 2016 6 Q: Will becoming a Check Point Certified Professional improve my career or employment opportunities? A: Companies hire certified professionals to ensure maximum security and availability of valuable business assets, and know certified professionals are more efficient, productive, and deliver lower total cost of ownership from Check Point solutions. And as one of over 50,000 Check Point Certified Professionals worldwide, you'll get immediate recognition of your experience, knowledge, and abilities while investing in your professional development and security career. Q: Where do I go to access my benefits? A: All benefits are accessed through your User Center account. Create a User Center account now if you don't already have one. If you have any problems with creating your account and linking your certifications, contact accountservices@checkpoint.com Q: Why is my certification information not listed in my User Center account? A: Your certification information could not be listed in your User Center account for one of the following reasons: • We tried to activate your benefits but there was no User Center account with the email address we have on file for you. Please check to ensure that the email account you provided VUE for registration matches the email account you used to set up your User Center account. • The benefits you received from a certain Check Point certification have expired. • We might not have received your results from Pearson VUE. If you do not see your benefits or certification listed with your User Center account, send an email to accountservices@checkpoint.com and we'll try to resolve the issue for you. Q: What email address should be used when registering for an exam? A: It is important that the email address used when registering for an exam is the email address associated to your User Center profile. This ensures that all certifications are reflected within the User Center and the e-certificate can be downloaded via the account. Q: Can certifications get tied to an alias email address? A: All certifications must be tied to a person-specific email address. Q: How do I update the email address associated to my User Center profile? A: For assistance or the steps of how to update your email address online, please contact our Account Services department for assistance; accountservices@checkpoint.com. Q: What should I do if my Pearson VUE profile has the wrong email address? A: Please contact Pearson VUE for assistance; http://www.pearsonvue.com/checkpoint/contact/ Back to top TELL ME ABOUT THE EXAMS Q: What is the difference between “low stakes” and “high stakes” exams? A: All Check Point exams are delivered through Pearson VUE. “Low stakes” exams are those delivered over the Internet to your desktop. They do not require attendance at a Pearson VUE Authorized Testing Center (ATC). “High stakes” exams are only delivered at Pearson VUE Authorized Testing Centers (ATC) and delivery meets certain exacting compliance standards. Q: In what order should I take the exams? A: Courses, certifications, and exams are all designed to build on the lessons learned and develop your skills and knowledge, so we recommend starting with CCSA R77 and CCSE R77 to get a core security foundation. From there you can choose the specialization or area of expertise that best matches your job role or career goals. See the complete list of courses, exams, and prerequisites earlier in the FAQ for more information. Updated September 2016 7 Q: How much do the exams cost? A: Exams vary in price between US $150-$200, but exact pricing is available through Pearson VUE. Q: Where can I take a Check Point certification exam? A: Check Point exams are offered through Pearson VUE, a third party testing vendor with over 3,500 testing centers worldwide. Register for your exam at a testing location near you. Q: What is the format of the exams? A: The exams are composed of multiple choice and scenario questions. All questions are “Select the BEST answer” type questions. There are no multiple response. Q: How long are the exams? A: We use a 90-minute exam in all English-speaking countries. Non-English speaking countries receive an additional 30 minutes. Q: How do I know I am ready for an exam? A: If you are preparing for the CCSA certification and want to take the 156-215 exam, you can determine if you are ready by taking the 156-601 CCSA R77 practice exam. This exam presents 40 questions from a subset of the actual exam pool. Feedback is limited to providing the correct answer during the exam. If you are preparing to complete the CCSE certification and want to take the 156-315 exam, you can determine if you are ready by taking the 156-602 CCSE R77 practice exam. This exam presents 40 questions from a subset of the actual exam pool. Feedback is limited to providing the correct answer during the exam. Q: Are the Check Point certification exams adaptive? A: Check Point has no plans at this time to move into adaptive exams. Q: Do any of the exams contain questions where the correct answer relies on the selection of multiple responses, even though the exam doesn't indicate to check more than one? A: Although the instructions for each exam state that there is one BEST answer, in truth the best answer may be a combination of more than one in the final results. We do this to evaluate how each student reaches their conclusion and makes difficult choices, just like you will be faced with on the job. However, there is no partial credit for incorrectly marked questions. Q: Should I have experience with Check Point products before attempting to pass an exam? A: Surveys of certified professionals suggest that a candidate have one to two years’ experience with the product in a production environment before attempting the CCSA certification. Since that isn’t practical in today’s environment, we recommend six months after training. A similar interval trended when studying the Engineering tasks of a certified CCSE professional. We recommend one year. The new Check Point Security Master certification job profile suggests five years’ experience before challenging the exam. Of course, this varies by individual. Q: Can I take the CCSA and CCSE exams on the same day? A: Yes, you can take the CCSA exam and later that same day, challenge the CCSE exam. Q: Does Check Point have an exam retake policy? A: Yes. If you fail an exam and want to retake it, the following applies: • Wait 24 hours after first unsuccessful attempt • Wait 30 days after each subsequent attempt thereafter Note: Once you pass an exam you cannot take it again. Updated September 2016 8 Q: I have taken the exam twice, and scored exactly the same thing. How is this possible? Is there a problem with the exam or the testing software? A: This is actually quite common, and indicates how reliable Check Point's exams are in testing your knowledge and skills. To create the best certification exams, we focus on consistency and on how an exam will measure competencies. There is a related learning/testing condition called "plateauing". Let's say you've studied hard, practiced the labs and exercises, and absorbed all you can through the current study approach. Studies and experience show you will consistently score the same regardless how much you review the material beyond that point. In this case the best solution for you would be to take a different study approach to gain new insight, and retain more knowledge than you would in just one method - we suggest taking an additional class, or working through some different practice exercises. Q: Does Check Point penalize incorrect answers? A: Check Point does not subtract points from your score for answering a question incorrectly. You will simply not get credit for that question. When taking one of our exams, answer as many questions as you can, even if you are not certain of your answer. Back to top MAINTAINING CURRENCY Q: I wanted to extend my certification by retaking my last exam but got the information from Pearson VUE that I’m not allowed to do so because I’ve already finished that. How do I extend my certification? A: Check Point policy is that you do not retake an exam you have already passed. You either update or upgrade. Ideally, the best course is to take the next higher exam. Q: What is the difference between “Inactive” and “Valid”? A: “Inactive” means that a candidate has not kept their certifications current in an aggressive threat environment. All professional certifications - those taken in a proctored exam environment - are good for, or considered “Current”, for two years. “Valid” refers to the candidate actually having met the requirements for Certification. Q: What are Continuing Education Credits? A: Check Point values lifelong learning. It is essential in an ever changing threat environment. Candidates can acquire Continuing Education Credits by participating in certain events, or by taking certain Low Stakes exams. Candidates are eligible to acquire two Continuing Education credits in a two year certification period Q: What low stakes exams are eligible for Continuing Education Credits? A: Where Check Points High stakes professional exams are primarily focused on performance-based questions, lowstakes exams are focused more on product knowledge and product features. Currently, on the Pearson VUE exam site, the following low stakes exams are available: 156-728 – Gaia Overview 156-729 – Advanced IPS 156-730 – SandBlast 156-733 – Mobile Threat Prevention SE Any two of these will renew your current CCSE certification for one year 1. What are the pre-requisites for the CCSE R75 exam? CCSA R70 or CCSA 71 or CCSA R75. 2. How can I update my R65 certification? If you have any CCSA R60 certification, take the CCSA R70/71 Update Training Blade to update your CCSA certification. If you have a CCSE R60 certification, take the CCSE R70/71 Update Training Blade to update your CCSE certification. 3. How long is my certification valid? Check Point certifications are valid for 2 years. CCMAs are valid for 3 years. Any certification more than three (3) years old is not considered current. Certifications become inactive after five years. Your benefits may be suspended if your certification is not current. Your certification can be maintained with annual continuing education credits. 4. What are ‘continuing education credits’? Continuing education credits help you maintain Check Point certifications without starting over with every product release. Continuing education credits can be earned in a variety of ways like completing shorter training lessons (Training Blades), by participating in our test development process, and even attending CPX. 5. What are the pre-requisites for CCMA? CCSE is mandatory; CCMSE is suggested. 6. Do you have a test-out option? Though highly recommended, it is not a requirement to attend a training course before challenging the exam. You may test at any time, however it is advised you spend at least 6 months working with Check Point products before attempting to achieve certification. 7. Are study materials available? Free study guides and practice exams are available for download at http://www.checkpoint.com/services/education/index.html#resources. Courseware can be purchased on our eStore and Training is available from an ATC. 8. How soon can I re-take an exam if I fail? If you fail an exam you must wait 24 hours before your 2nd attempt, and 30 days for the 3rd attempt. Once you pass a test you cannot take it again for a higher score. 9. Can I get exam insurance? Students automatically get a 50% re-take discount on any 2nd attempt of the CCSA and CCSE R75 exams. 10. I only failed by 1 point and based on my calculations I should have passed – what happened? The function of certification is to provide proof the Check Point Certified professional is qualified to protect the lifeblood of organizations – their data. Check Point takes this very seriously and we constantly strive to administer the most effective exams. Passing is calculated by comparing the number of questions answered correctly versus the number of questions answered incorrectly. Not all sections of the test are weighted equally. ©2012 Check Point Software Technologies Ltd. . Classification: [Unrestricted] — For everyone | P. 2 11. Can I take any R65 level exams? No, all R65 exams have been retired except for the Japanese versions. Our philosophy is to provide training and certification only for current technologies so our partners and customers will always benefit from the latest security advancements. 12. Where can I find more information about Check Point Certified Professionals? The Check Point Certified Professionals website and newsletter are a benefit which contain special information and resources that are not available to the public. 13. What happens when I pass my exam? When will I receive my Certificate? After you pass a Check Point exam at VUE, your exam results are uploaded. On the 15th and 30th, we process all certification results and order certification kits. It takes 6-8 weeks to receive your certificate. Your advanced access to Secure Knowledge and the Certified Professionals website is established once you achieve certification. 14. Why can’t I have more than one account at Pearson VUE test centers? Check Point only allows one Pearson VUE account to track your Check Point exams. If you change companies, please update the contact information in your Pearson VUE account instead of creating a new one so your Check Point certifications will follow you. You can verify your accounts with Customer Service here http://www.vue.com/checkpoint/contact/ 15. What happens if someone gets caught cheating? How do you prevent it? Every individual who takes an exam signs our Non-disclosure agreement. Anyone caught in the act of cheating or sharing exam items will have their Check Point certifications revoked for 2 years. All testing privileges and partner program participation will be deactivated during this time. Check Point collaborates with major technology companies to prevent cheating through test pattern analysis and distribution best practices. Together we identify and take legal action against unauthorized test centers and inaccurate “brain dump” sites. 16. What are the benefits of Check Point certification? Check Point Certified Professionals receive access to the Advanced SecureKnowledge base, Certified Professionals only website and quarterly newsletter for 2 years. Check Point Certified Master Architects (CCMA) receive 3 years Expert level access to SecureKnowledge. 17. How do I access my certification benefits? Make sure your Check Point User Center (UC) email address matches the email address registered with Pearson VUE. Your UC profile will automatically be updated with each certification, including advanced access to SecureKnowledge and the Certified Professionals only website. Check Point Certified Security Administrator (CCSA) R80 Today, managing security is a complex endeavor. The key to managing this complexity is through security consolidation – bringing all security protections and functions under one umbrella. With R80 management, security consolidation is fully realized. This three-day course covers everything you need to start-up, configure and manage the daily operations of your Check Point infrastructure with R80. TRAINING CALENDAR SCHEDULE YOUR EXAM SEARCH FOR YOUR LOCAL ATC Course Description Learn How To Install R80 management and a security gateway in a distributed environment Configure objects, rules, and settings to define a security policy Work with multiple concurrent administrators and define permission profiles Configure a Virtual Private Network and work with Check Point clustering Perform periodic administrator tasks as specified in administrator job descriptions Prerequisites Basic knowledge of networking 6 months to 1 year of experience with Check Point products recommended How You Will Benefit Be prepared to defend against network threats Evaluate existing security policies and optimize the rule base Manage user access to corporate LANs Monitor suspicious network activities and analyze attacks Troubleshoot network connections Implement Check Point backup techniques Exam Information Exam# 156-215.80 What You Need To Know Check Point Technology Overview Security Policy Management Monitoring Traffic and Connections Network Address Translations Basic Concepts of VPN Managing User Access Working with ClusterXL Administrator Task Implementation Prerequisites 6 months to 1 year of experience with Check Point products recommended Check Point User Center account Pearson VUE Test Center account How You Will Benefit CCSA’s rank higher than other security vendor professionals Validation you have the skills to implement the latest network security advancements Certified Professionals community, newsletter and special web access Check Point Certified Security Administrator (CCSA) R77.30 Advance your knowledge on the GAiA operating system! 3-day course covers everything you need to start-up, configure and manage daily operations of Check Point Security Gateway and Management Software Blades systems on the GAiA operating system. TRAINING CALENDAR SCHEDULE YOUR EXAM SEARCH FOR YOUR LOCAL ATC DOWNLOAD STUDY GUIDE Course Description Learn How To Install the security gateway in a distributed environment Configure rules on Web and Gateway servers Create a basic rule base in SmartDashboard and assign permissions Schedule backups and seamless upgrades with minimal downtime Monitor and troubleshoot IPS and common network traffic Prerequisites Basic knowledge of networking Windows Server and/or UNIX skills Internet and TCP/IP experience How You Will Benefit Be prepared to defend against network threats Evaluate existing security policies and optimize the rule base Manage user access to corporate LANs Monitor suspicious network activities and analyze attacks Troubleshoot network connections Protect email and messaging content Exam Information Exam# 156-215.77 What You Need To Know Check Point Technology Overview Deployment Platforms and Security Policies Monitoring Traffic and Connections Network Address Translations User Management and Authentication Using SmartUpdate Implementing Identity Awareness Configuring VPN tunnels Resolving security administration issues Prerequisites 6 months to 1 year of experience with Check Point products recommended Check Point User Center account VUE Test Center account How You Will Benefit CCSA’s rank higher than other security vendor professionals Validation you have the skills to implement the latest network security advancements Certified Professionals community, newsletter and special web access Security Engineering (Check Point Certified Security Expert (CCSE) R77.30) Advanced 3-day course teaches how to build, modify, deploy and troubleshoot Check Point Security Systems on the GAiA operating system. 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The CCSE Update only tests your knowledge on the latest product release. To prepare you should train or study the full CCSE course. Prerequisites CCSE Certification – any previous version Check Point User Center account VUE Test Center account MDSM with VSX (Multi-Domain Security Management with Virtual System Extension) 5-day advanced course teaches how to design, install, configure and manage Multi-Domain Security Management with Virtual System Extension. 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